Heard this argument before (and even heard it used to imply that Jesus tacitly endorsed homosexuality) and found it pretty unpersuasive. Jesus (as we point out to anti-Semites) was a self-identified Jew, was called Rabbi by followers, talked about “came not to destroy the Law but to fulfull it,” “no jot nor tittle,” etc. (sorry for the (mis)quotes from memory). The very fact that the OT was so unequivocal in its condemnation makes me think it that Jesus’s silence (at least on the record) is more reasonably interpreted, in His orthodox Jewish milieu, as taking for granted that the OT strictures on homosexuality were still applicable, rather than abandoning those strictures sub silentio. That is, it was sufficiently beyond the pale that He wouldn’t have even thought to mention it. Related note: It sometimes amuses me when unchurched clerico-phobics paint a picture of the Xtns’ nonstop thundering sermons obsessively damning the sodomites; maybe this is going on in fundamentalist churches, which I’ve not much attended, but in the suburban congregation of my youth (of a denomination which was pretty clearly on record as disapproving homosexuality), I can’t recall a single mention of it from the pulpit (other than in an OT reading); frankly, it was just taken for granted that the issue wasn’t even on the table, so sermonizing on it was no more necessary than an anti-necrophilia admonishment.
Note I’m not advocating either position here; just arguing that taken in context (e.g., Pau’s roughly-contemporaneous writings, which do mention and deplore homosexuality along with fornication), the Xtn contention that Jesus would adopt a “hate the sin, love the sinner” approach seems to me the best way to read Jesus’s ‘silence’ on the issue – as opposed to inferring neutrality or approval as his position.