How can this be proven? (maths)

I was having a conversation with my maths teacher, and he mentioned in passing a maths problem he had in his higher level class that he wasn’t able to solve. I asked him about it, and he gave it to me. Now, granted, I knew it was pretty high above my level, but I thought maybe I might see something he missed. Unfortunately, I didn’t see any way to do it. So I thought I might turn to the dopers for assistance. Here’s the problem:

Prove
(1 + x)[sup]k[/sup] =< 1 + kx

given:
0< k =< 1
x > 0

(note: I don’t know how to make the sign “less than or equal to”, so I’ve used =<. I have no idea if this is proper notation.)

If any of you math dopers could help out, he’d be most appreciative. As for me, I’m lost.

(note #2: I know this sounds suspicious, but I swear upon my honor as a doper that this is NOT a homework problem.)

It looks like the old example of simple interest being better than compound interest for periods of less than a year. Could it not be demonstrated graphically?

Can you prove that 1+kx =< (1+x)[sup]k[/sup] for x>0 and k>=1? (I don’t know exactly what level of math you’re using so I don’t know how hard this would be.) If so, can you see a way to use this fact?

Hmm…the binomial theorem is your friend.

No, because that’s not a proof, unless you graph it for all values of x. Since the range is infinite, you’ll need a lot of paper.

You mean the binomial series right?

But then it diverges for |x|>1.

Please bear with me on this one, I’ve not attempted maths like this in 7 years but I think I can explain. I’ve used n instead of k as I couldn’t find how to superscript k!!!

Prove that:

(1+x)ⁿ ≤ 1+nx where x>0 and 0<n≤1

For n=1: Anything to the power of 1 is the number being raised. Likewise, any number mupltiplied by 1 is itself.

e.g. for x=3 LHS: (1+3)^1 = 4 RHS: 1+(1*4) = 5 Q.E.D

For values of n<1, xⁿ = 1/n√x
Now I can’t use the correct notation. What the above means is that xⁿ = (the reciprocal of n root) x. i.e. if n=2 then square root x. if n=3 then cube root x etc.
Therefore any value of 0<n<1, (1+x)ⁿ will be less than 1+x.

Finding the way to prove this part is more tricky, I though I had it but I don’t. I think I’ve proved n=1 part ok. Apologies for the anticlimax.

You realise I’m now gonna be awake for the rest of the night trying to solve this.
Cheers!!

It’s often given as “<=”, but your version is comprehensible.

I would take ultrafilter’s advice. This website should help:

http://www.krysstal.com/binomial.html

Scroll down to “The Binomial Theorem”

Bah, details!

Seriously, that is a problem.

I think I have a method. The idea is that we fix k to be one of the allowable ones, then vary x. This assumes you know about differentiation.

We wish to prove (1+x)[sup]k[/sup] <= 1+ k*x

First, we can see what happens when x = 0. Then
LHS = (1+x)[sup]k[/sup] = (1+0)[sup]k[/sup] = 1[sup]k[/sup] = 1
RHS = 1+ k*0 = 1

So LHS = RHS. Now we will show that the LHS increases more slowly than the RHS, as x increases, by taking derivatives, with respect to x.

The derivative of the LHS is k(1+x)[sup]k-1[/sup]
The derivative of the RHS is k

(1+x) >= 1 for x >= 0, so as k - 1 <= 0, (1+x)[sup]k-1[/sup] <= 1, the derivative of the LHS is less than the derivative of the RHS, for x >= 0.

To sum up, when x = 0, both sides are equal and for positive x (x >= 0), the derivative of the LHS is less than that of the RHS, so the RHS increases faster. so the RHS cannot be any lower than the LHS (for x > 0), as they start at the same point.

That looks good to me, silverfish.

silverfish beat me to it, but his/hers is the approach I would have used with the following slight variation.

Consider the function f(x) = 1 + kx - (1 + x)[sup]k[/sup].

WIth this, the original question becomes show that for x > 0 and 0 < k <= 1, f(x) >= 0

Taking the derivative with respect to x gives f’(x) = k(1 - (1+ x)[sup]k-1[/sup])

Now, for 0 < k <=1, k - 1 <= 0 and so (1 + x)[sup]k-1[/sup] <= 1, thus f’(x) > 0

Since f(0) = 0 and for x > 0, 0 < k <=1, f’(x) > 0 the function is strictly increasing and thus the inequality is proven.

This reminds me of a similar question from my dim, dark past… which is larger, e to the power pi or pi to the power e?

(as an aside, how does one code to get the greek letter pi?)

Arrghhhh… forgot to account for the boundary condition, k = 1

For k = 1,
f(x) = 1 + x - (1 + x)[sup]1[/sup] = 0

Which also satisfies the inequality.

Easy as p :slight_smile:

Use <font=symbol>p<font> but with square brackets

on my computer I get a funny exagerated serif font, not greek symbols. Is this because I dont have the right fonts installed (I have symbol in word, so it exist somewhere on this computer)

sorry it works on IE, but not on Opera. still a few bugs in Opera I guess

If you are willing to go to a little trouble, you can use unicode to get Greek characters. Here is a table of codes for many different characters, including Greek. For example, typing &# followed by 960 followed by ; will get you π.

When come back, bring p :eek:

There is no method for producing Greek letters which will work on all browsers. The various Mozillas don’t recognize Symbol font[sup]*[/sup], and older browsers (which, believe it or not, some folks still use) won’t recognize Unicode or escape sequences for Greek letters.

*This is actually deliberate, since the Symbol font is not officially listed in the HTML standards. Sometimes, I think that standards compliance can go too far.

Back on topic, it’s clear that Silverfish et al.'s method works, but it does seem like it should be possible without differentiation.