How did "going to" come to mean "will"?

The teaching of English is seriously damaged by trying to fit it into a \latin mold, that could hardly fit it worse. Before I launch into this, let me observe that “aller”" in French functions exactly as “going to” in English and is the most common form of expressing future.

The most important observation is that the English verb form does not express tense. What it expresses is “aspect”. There are two forms, the imperfect, mistakenly called the present and the perfect, generally called the past. As an example, consider the sentence, “I go to my office every day.” The idea it expresses is simultaneously past, present, and future. Contrast, “I went to my office every day (until I retired).” past action, to be sure, but mainly completed action (prefective). The main constrast in meaning between “Jon has been a mathematician” and “Jon was a mathematician” is that the second has an implication that Jon is dead. I could go on with this a long time, but I desist.

Another observation about English is that while many languages have modal verbs, English has a part of speech called modals. But their grammar differs sufficiently from that of verbs that it is best to consider them a distinct part of speech. There are several ways to recognize the difference. First place they cannot be governed by modals. In German you can say, “Ich mussen koennen machen etwas” and in French, “Je doit pouvior faire quellque chose”, but in English you must say something like “I must be able to do something”". Second, only “be”, “do”, and modals can be used in questions and negatives without “do supposrt”. (Sometimes “have” can be so used but that usage is becoming increasingly archaic.) Thirdly, along with “do”, “be”, and “have”, they can govern a verb without a preposition. Interestingly, the optional modals “dare” and “need” can be used both ways, but can be inverted and negated only if used without “to”.

Apparently the modals were verbs until about 1550. In the ensuing 50 years, they ceased being verbs and the periphrastic constructions, “be going to”, “be about to”, “be able to”, “have to”, entered the language.

This and much more can be found in a book called “Prncipals of Diachronic Syntax” by David Lightfoot, where I learned it. He gives much better arguments than I can.

I think the teaching of ESL would be vastly improved if the actual grammar of English were taught and they stopped trying to shoehorn into a Latin mold. Just the distinction between perfect and imperfect might go a long way to sorting out the question of when to use the so-called progressive forms that give non-native speakers such problems.

A native German speaking colleague of mine told that he once spent a sleepless night before he realized the simple rule that determines whether a German verb uses a “ge-” prefix in the past participle. The rule is not taught to students learning German (wasn’t to me) and, while known unconsciously to all native speakers of German, had never been articulated before as far as he was aware:

The “ge-” is used in the past participle if and only if the verb is stressed on its first syllable.

On “shall” vs. “will.”

Strunk and White is not a credible source for anything. It’s like citing Bill Bryson for etymology.

I find myself pimping this guy a lot: Steve Pinker extensively covers the extension of terms of spatial movement to describe temporal movement in his book The Stuff of Thought.

What makes you think that hasn’t happened? To be certain, too much of the later persists, but the former has become much more prevalent. Principles of Diachronic Syntax came out ages ago–even a decade before that, (Latin-inspired) grammar-translation instruction was being questioned, and functional-notional models were starting to influence grammar instruction pedagogy.

An interesting article, but to my untrained eyes it seems that there are alternate explanations for his examples that “will” can mean something other than future tense.

For instance:
“My parents won’t know that I’m here yet, so I should call them.”
"Means that they don’t know I’m here, not that a time is coming along in the future at which they will cease to know. "

But it seems to me that we often speak of others from the perspective of someone in the past–as if our mental snapshot of that person is frozen in that past state. In that sense, it is future knowledge that I have arrived safely.

I might posit that this interpretation fits better with relativity in physics. There is no absolute time, so it makes sense to speak relative to the last causal contact with the other object. For all I know, my parents may have been traveling at close to the speed of light since I last spoke with them.

“I am going to …” means “I will …”
“I was going to …” means “I did not …”.

Or it could mean –

“I would have …” or
“I intend to …”

Excellent point. It’s a key point to the whole question. I can think of only a single example that violated it, but it may be a pseudo-example. The lyrics printed along with John Lennon’s album Mind Games had this line in the song “Meat City”:

Well I’m gonna China to see for myself

In which China is obviously not a verb but a place name. However, Lennon pronounces it differently from the syntactic marker gonna, which is pronounced [gənə].

But Lennon pronounces it [ˈgoʊnə] (rhyming with “Arizona”), which sounds to me like a very elided pronunciation of [ˈgoʊɪŋ tu], i.e. the verb denoting motion. Note the primary stress on the first syllable, while as a syntactic marker, gonna is almost always unstressed. English does not use schwa in stressed syllables.

So he actually wasn’t singing “gonna” ([gənə]), but whoever transcribed the lyrics for the liner notes chose that misleading spelling. You’re right, to read “I’m gonna China” always looked wrong, and you’ve given a good explanation of why that is. The apparent grammatical anomaly was really just bad transcription.

This happens with other kinds of deixis, too. Bring and take, for example, are not absolute representations of one direction or another. They can be employed to demonstrate a certain degree of identification with another person’s perspective:

Grandma’s sick in the hospital. Let’s bring her some flowers.”

The speaker chooses bring over take to show empathy for the sick grandmother.

Yes. One way in which English speakers show deference or formality is switching to the past tense.

Employee: “Sir, I was just going to take a short break now to call my children, if you don’t mind.”

Boss: “Sure, that’s all right. Go ahead.”

Glad to hear this. But I know a teacher of ESL and she still uses traditional grammar (even though she has a master’s in linguistics).

So how does “I’ma” fit into all this, as in “I’ma let you finish”?

I believe “I’ma” is simply a contraction for “I am going to”, right?

ETA: Or perhaps more obviously, for “I’m gonna” which is in turn a contraction for “I am going to”…

Well, that’s one reason (but not the sole reason) why univerisities started applied linguistics programs. In pure linguistics, people tend to sit in their office and make up sentences which no one would actually say (“The quick brown fox will have jumped over the lazy dog.”) Then they write whole dissertations about it. Many (especially those who study things like syntax and phonology) tend to approach language in a mathematical way, and as a result, when they find themselves teaching a language, they teach it synthetically. But the reality is that real language, as it actually occurs, is messy, so to speak, and applied linguists embrace that, and utilize that awareness for effective language instruction.

In applied linguistics we go out and record what people actually say in real situations, and use that record to see how discourse and functional contexts, social relationships, motivations, physcial circumstance, etc. shape the way language is used. With enough data, we can identify patterns and “rules,” but these are far more complex than what the studies of syntax, morphology, etc. alone can describe.

Applied linguists have to know all the basics of what pure linguists study, but then go about using that knowledge differently. (In fact, at UCLA, the two departments are in separate buildings.) The result is you get studies like this, (Deb Roy’s intense documentation of how his son acquired production of the word “water”), and it intersects with studies in departments like anthropology, neuro-biology, sociology, etc. You also find that the studies that come out of applied linguistics are what help to make computer systems like IBM’s Watson more successful at playing Jeopardy.

To a person who wants to gain competency in English it isn’t important whether the language has a “true future tense.” That person instead needs to understand and learn the various native ways the language is used for various functions and motivations to reference, in this case,“future” perspectives:

I’m paying for dinner tonight. (intention)

I’m going to take my mother out tonight. (plan)

My plane arrives at 8:00am Saturday. (itinerary)

I think I’ll take the bus instead of the subway. (momentary decision)

I’ll get that! [telephone, dropped object, etc.] (offer)

When I grow up, I wanna be a doctor. (volition)

Of course another reason why other people still teach English using only grammar-translation or audio-lingual (i.e., behavioristic) methods is simply because that’s how their high school Spanish/French/German class was taught, and so that’s all they know about language instruction. Because of the world-wide demand, though, instruction of English has advanced more than instruction of other languages.