I am trying to understand the following news article:
So my (potentially-flawed?) understanding of a normal public offering is that the owners of a company receive money from the underwriters (like Goldman Sachs) of the offering who then in-turn sell the shares to public.
In the case of Keek, the company purchased an already-publicly-traded company (in a bizarre unrelated business) for the purpose of being listed publicly. But how to the owners of the shares of Keek benefit from being listed publicly now? If I buy a share of the company does that somehow go directly to them?