I believe in this situation the people who have paid your mortgage will want their money back.
If so, I doubt the mortgage company will simply reach into their pocket and reimburse. If they haven’t released your loan from the real estate records, then the correction may come by charging back the false payments against your loan. You may have some hassle from the IRS in order to correct your tax matters. Under such a situation, it’s not really income to you, it’s a bookkeeping mistake that needs to be corrected.
If it’s not corrected then it’s income to you. Since your tax rate is under 100%, then you benefit. Funding the payment of the tax may be an issue, but this series of events is a net positive to you.
No. That would be taxable income. But IF someone *who you owed money to * decided to “forgive” part of that debt, and IF you were insolvent, it COULD be non-taxable.
There are lots of ways around paying taxes. For example, if your boss give you free or reduced rent as you MUST live on those premises to do your job- the FMV of that is not taxable. If your employer pays your health insurance for you- very common- that’s not taxable. Interest on certain State or Municipal bonds- generally non-taxable. Combat pay- tax free. Damages in a lawsuit for personal injury- generally tax-free. Some Fellowships & Scholarships, certain fringe benefits, the Gain on sale of your personal residence (depending), Life inurance proceeds, Some Social Security benefits- and much more- are often Tax-free.
We were talking about some pretty obscure situations. I was trying to think if you could get back at an enemy by paying a debt for them. You might under really specific conditions.
I don’t know what exactly would happen in this situation but assuming that Blalthisar has a 30 year mortgage that he got 2 years ago there could be a pre-payment penalty for paying it off in less than x years. This has become fairly common because of a trend toward refinancing every couple of years to take advantage of riseing home values. Perhaps and expert could elaborate on what would happen in this situation?
I am not a mortgage broker, but my dad is, so I have picked up on a few things.
Well, assuming the person called for a payoff (which is what one would do if they wanted to pay off the entire mortgage) the prepayment penalty would be included in the payoff. If somebody just sent a bunch of money to the mortgage company (guessing at the balance), the company might assess a prepayment penalty because large payments (maybe 20% of the loan balance or more) are treated like early payoffs. So at worst, the mortgage company would tack on a bit to the greatly diminished balance. He’d still be better off.