xtisme writes:
> While my own statement that the US was founded by folks seeking religious
> freedom may have been a bit overblow, by the same token so was Wendell
> Wagner’s categoric denial of it. . . Really this wasn’t central to the point I was
> trying to make in any case…which is that Europe has historically had a lot of
> bad experience with religion so its no great shock that religion is at a low point
> there (taken as a whole, noting that there are exceptions)…while America
> hasn’t really had anything similar.
Look, the whole notion that the U.S.'s relatively larger proportion of people with (declared) religious faith, as compared to Europe, has something to do with events that happened in the sixteenth through eighteenth centuries (when most of the immigration that you’re talking about happened and when the religious wars in Europe happened) falls apart upon examination. First, the people who came to America for religious religions were a pretty small proportion of all the people who came. The prime example that people give for this was the Pilgrims, but the Pilgrims were in fact really nothing more than a footnote in American history. They were only a small part of the immigration even to the Massachusetts Bay colony during the seventeenth century and were swamped by ordinary Anglicans by 1700. Nor have their descendents been particularly religious. The descendents of the Pilgrims are now nearly all either Congregationalists (i.e., liberal Protestants), Unitarians (vaguely spiritual people who mostly don’t believe in Christian doctrines), and atheists. Yes, some of the other immigrants came for religious reasons, but that doesn’t mean that the people who came were any more religious than the ones that stayed in the U.S. The people who stayed in Europe were generally just as religious, but they happened to be part of the established church where they lived.
Indeed, the whole notion that religious persecution and immigration made Americans more religious and religious wars made Europeans less religious is a post hoc, propter hoc argument. If the proportions of religious faith had turned out the other way, you could make an equally convincing argument that that’s how it had to turn out. You would say, “Well, being persecuted made Americans more wary of religious faith and enduring religious wars made Europeans more strong in their faith.” There’s just no proof of the implications Religious Persecutions and Immigrations -> Religious Faith and Religious Wars -> Lack of Religious Faith.
Second, the argument falls apart on ethnic grounds. Do you know which ethnic group in the U.S. has the highest proportion of belief in God and attendance at church? It’s African-Americans. None of their ancestors came to the U.S. for religious reasons. Or what about Hispanics? Again, their proportion of belief in god and attendance at church is noticeably higher than other Americans, and yet none of their ancestors came to the U.S. for religious reasons.
Third, the argument doesn’t work on regional grounds either. If we look at the parts of the U.S. that were most religious in about 1800, they don’t match up to the areas that are most religious now. In 1800, the northern U.S. (what we could call the northeastern U.S. now) was the strongest in religious faith. In contrast, the southern U.S. (what we would call the southeastern U.S. now) was weakest in religious faith. Those proportions have now completely turned around.
Indeed, whatever difference there is in the amount of (declared) religious faith between the U.S. and Europe must be the result of events in the nineteenth and twentieth centuries. In 1800, there wasn’t much difference in religious faith between the U.S. and Europe. The differences, such as there are, must have happened later. What ever caused the differences in the amount of religious faith in the U.S. must be the results of things that happened purely within the U.S. after 1800, not of things that happened earlier because of immigration from Europe. I don’t know exactly what these causes were, but it might have been the effect of the Second Great Awakening (the religious revival of the early nineteenth century) and Fundamentalism (a movement of the early twentieth century). (Get yourself a book on American religious history and look these terms up if you don’t know them.) I think that the presence of Fundamentalism in the U.S. is a lot of what people see as the difference between Americans and Europeans, and yet it didn’t exist before the twentieth century. The term “fundamentalism” didn’t even exist before the twentieth century.