The trouble is, there is no standard by which we can judge anyone’s standards as being any “better” than anyone else’s, and therefore no reason to choose one over another. Thus my point - Fred Phelps has a standard based on his values. It certainly disagrees with your standard and therefore your values (and mine as well). But there is no objective way to decide this (absent some transcendent, objective standard, and we are ruling this out).
No, of course not. What I am doing is that atheists base their morality on unproven assumptions, in the same way and to the same degree as theists.
You can base a morality on economic efficiency if you like. In the same way, and with a equal degree of validity, you can base a morality on religion (any religion) or a love of the White Sox or “what’s in it for me” or anything else. Anything else.
It has to be taken for granted that economic efficiency is a valid basis for morality. There is, in other words, no sustainable answer to the question “why is economic efficiency the Good?” It just is, and therefore ultimately it has to come down to what Apos concedes - the stronger imposes their will on everyone else. You know, that sort of “forcing your morality onto me” that is usually considered a bad thing.
It might be economically efficient to kill old people, too - is that moral?
Gay marriage, for example - a majority of voters rejected it back in 2004. I don’t hear a lot of Dopers arguing that therefore it was a perfectly moral decision. There isn’t any consistent reason, therefore, to argue that some fundamentalist Islamic country should allow homosexual behavior or gay marriage (or abortion or whatever), because the majority, or at least the stronger, can impose its will on its population.
Likewise the Holocaust. The stronger there was the Nazi party, and they decided that it was moral to kill Jews. You have to take it for granted that there is something wrong with killing people before you can argue against the will of the stronger here. Trouble is, there is ultimately no basis on which you can establish that standard either. Why is it wrong to kill people? Well, it just is, because it furthers some other standard, that just is, because it furthers something else, that just is, and so forth and so forth.
Arguments from consequence when trying to establish a moral standard are begging the question.
Sure it does. You have faith that economic efficiency or whatever is a valid basis for a moral code. There is no objective evidence of this; it is merely an assertion. You can point to the fact that the majority wants it, but that is an assertion of faith in the validity of majoritarianism.
Or you can simply say morality is subjective, but can be imposed on others because you are stronger than they are. Which doesn’t prove you are right, just that you are more numerous or louder or whatever.
If the majority of a population is in favor of Islamo-fascism or female genital mutilation, does that mean these things are moral? If most people accept a certain religion, then is their morality validly based?
Regards,
Shodan