All of the voting threads have got me wondering: Most measures to prevent vote fraud increase the difficulty of voting, convincing some people who would have voted to skip the hassle. In the absence of an obviously disproportionate impact on one constituency, how much hassle is preventing a fraudulent vote worth?
It seems obvious to me that a lower bound would be one legit to one fraudulent, because a fraudulent vote can cancel out a legit vote. In cases in which fraud is one-sided but the ballot issue is nearly even, the ability to stuff 100 ballots may outweigh 10,000 additional votes, 5050 for and 4950 against. Clearly ballot-box security is important enough to invest in some inconveniencing measures (perhaps a line with a couple observers per box, or ballots limited to one per person and tightly controlled). I provisionally accept 100 legit votes discouraged per fraudulent vote prevented, but will probably settle on a lower value.
But higher numbers? I understand the sentiment that the least motivated voters are less important, but I don’t think I could get behind measures that discourage 1000 people out of voting to prevent one fraudulent vote. Is the reasoning based on a principle that it is infinitely more important to prevent fraud than to have accessible voting?
To estimate my line of thinking- say you live an a city of 1 million people. If this city has unusually high turnout, you may get 500,000 votes (60% turnout * 80% voting age). A very unusually close election (perhaps fantastically so) may be decided by 1,000 votes. To prevent systematic fraud from reversing the election, would you take measures discouraging 1000 votes? 10,000 votes? Would anyone claim that the election is more valid if security is so rigorous that 100,000 or more votes are discouraged? It seems to me that beyond the simplest measures already present, tighter controls make elections less trustworthy, not more.
I understand that it is difficult to estimate the amount of legitimate votes discouraged, and even harder to estimate the number of fraudulent votes prevented. If we could know, where would you draw the line, and why?
I also understand that discouraged voters will not be drawn proportionally from each constituency. It is my view that measures that have a disproportionate impact on different constituencies should have an even lower threshold for prevented legit vs. fraudulent votes, but I’m not sure how much lower. If possible, I’d like to at least start this debate in hypothetical land, where security measures do not have a disproportionate impact on the electorate and are implemented solely to prevent fraudulent votes.