Posting in here as I have not seen a factual answer to this and assume some opinion may be involved…
I have heard a lot about the opioid epidemic over the past few years and believe that it is horrendous. One thing that never seems to come up, however, is the origin of the individual cases of addiction. Let’s assume a base case of someone who started his/her addiction with a legitimate prescription (I know the epidemic includes other types of cases, though this seems to be the type that is most talked about). There would seem to be two main possible scenarios:
Someone starts a prescription for pain and gets accidentally addicted to the drug. They never use it for pleasure, escape, etc., and never gets any enjoyment out of it at all, but they nevertheless become addicted.
Someone gets a prescription, tries it, and likes the drug. They keep taking it for fun, escape, etc.
Of course, there needn’t be a black-and-white division between the two scenarios; no doubt, some people fall into both categories at the same time. But I haven’t heard a word about this.
What kinds of facts/opinions can you provide? Thanks!