First, a usage note: By using the word “unconvincing” I wasn’t trying to say that I lucwarm am the supreme judge of what theories are to be accepted and what theories are rejected. If you look a couple posts down from my original post, I made a slightly clearer statement on the issue:
Ultimately, I don’t think that my reasoning is that huge of a logical leap, for several reasons:
First, we are dealing with somewhat extraordinary facts. It’s not as if 15 or 25 or 35 or even 55 percent of the top short-distance runners are black. I don’t know what the number is, but I suspect it’s well above 90%. If you look at the runners who have successfuly run 100 meters in less than 10 seconds, there might not be a single white or oriental in that group.
Second, there are basically only two possible explanations: Either the disparity is 100% cultural/sociological in cause or partly genetic.
Third, the “partly genetic” explanation is not even that outrageous of a theory. We already know that some subgroups of the black race are more likely to carry certain alleles than other groups. So it’s not even that daring to hypothesize that there are one or more alleles that affect short-distance running ability that are more common in some sub-group of blacks.
Finally, as mentioned before, the cultural/sociological explanations are pretty much unconvincing.
So I don’t think it’s that big of a leap (so to speak).
If it’s really true that the “partly genetic” explanation contradicts most scientific discoveries, I’ll certainly rethink my position. Please feel free to share.
Edwino, one of the difficulties I have with your posts, is that since you are evidently not too fond of using quotes, and frequently refrain from posting for long periods of time while cloning genes and other such, it is sometimes difficult to determine which point you are responding to, let alone how. Best as I can figure, you are now repeating a distinction (also previously made by DSeid, IIRC) between your various posts about the race/athleticism issue. Which does not address my point which is that your post of 08-17-2002 04:32 PM addressed the point made by DSeid, not IzzyR. (I have previously responded, BTW, to the distinction between AAs and Africans, when DSeid made it).
I agree that this does indeed represent my position (though I would change “Some group is” to “Some group might”). I would add that, in most cases, the groups being discussed have already been defined, albeit on a non-genetic basis. We all agree, for example, that there exist sociological groupings of African-Americans and White Americans (and this despite the presence of numerous borderline people of mixed ancestry). People’s interest in the characteristics of the groups has a non-scientific basis. It is a mistake to assume that people pondering or arguing about possible genetic differences are doing so out of adherence to some genetic theory or other. And yet, the discussion is still over whether there might be a scientific basis for the distinction (which again, is of interest for non-scientific reasons). For this reason, I think that a post in response which primarily declares that “there is no concept of race” etc. or something similar, is interpreted as meaning that “there is no genetic difference” and not as “any such genetic difference is not meaningful from a scientific standpoint, because the underlying groups are not defined scientifically”, as now appears to possibly be the intended meaning (at least of some “anti-race” posters). It could be that you guys are merely reading too much pure scientific meaning into these types of questions.
Which is not to say that it is not informative to point out that one cannot treat all people with identical skin color as belonging to some homogenous “race”. Just that you need to be more clear about exactly what (or how strongly) one can infer from this fact.
I realize you were only using this as an example. But once you bring it up…I don’t think I’ve ever made this assumption (about your position) - could you recheck that?
Just wanted to point out that there is a distinction between (statistically) significant disparities and (statistically) non-significant disparities.
Of course it’s generally true that if you take any grouping of people, measure some traits, and average, you will find a disparity. You will not necessarily find a statistically significant (and reproducible) difference, however.
I think that IzzyR’s point is that the lack of genetic coherence of the various races does not rule out the possibility of these sorts of significant differences.
The fact that insignificant differences are inevitable is true but irrelevant, IMHO.