Gestalt was specifically speaking in terms of social markers, which I interpreted to mean signs given out by a person that allow others to determine their gender. Under that definition, pregnancy is not a particularly important marker, because it’s a state that most women spend only a tiny percentage of their lives in, and moreover, one which is easily confused with other factors, such as being overweight. Certainly, from a clinical sense, it’s much more important, but if we’re relying purely on clinical definitions, being pregnant is no greater a gender marker than possession of a uterus. Since we’ve already decided that I can be considered a woman if I act in the manner Gestalt earlier described as “feminine,” then the clinical definition clearly does not control, and the possession of a fetus is no more an indication of gender than the possesion of a uterus.
As I said in my previous post, I don’t think that pregnancy can properly be considered a “behavior.” As to your flat assertion that one cannot be pregnant and be a man, this is no less an arbitrary a definition than saying that one cannot possess double X chromosones and be a man. Why, other than biology, can a man not be pregnant? And if we’re already ignoring biology in determining gender (as already ceded by both you and Getalt in your acceptance of transexuals who don’t get pregnant) then there is absolutely no reason not to ignore this facet of (usually) feminine biology in deciding wether or not the person in the OP is a man or a woman.
I asked Gestalt this, but I’d be interested in your response, as well, since you appear to agree with her: once this guy gives birth, will he revert to being a man again? Or is he forever a female in your eyes because of this? Was he ever a male, or has this pregnancy retroactively reverted his gender identity back to female?
A few more questions, now that I think about it, and I’d like to hear Gestalt’s opinion on them, as well. If a FTM transexual is raped, conceives a child as a result, and decides to carry the child to term, have they lost their identity as a male as a result? Is gender identity something that can be taken from one by force?
Secondly, if a MTF transexual impregnates her girlfriend, does mean that turn her back into a man? If not, why would this be any different than a FTM deciding to become pregnant?
Lastly, why is it important that a person be identified with only one gender in the first place?