If "there's no such thing as race," is there such a thing as gender?

This is smoke and mirrors.

If “STRUCTURE” is so important, then why did your earlier example treat people who were “Italian, Armenian, Egyptian and Greek,” (and, hence, from the same cluster and, frankly, quite geographically close), as though they were vastly different?

Your definitions are so malleable and elastic as to be meaningless.

That doesn’t make your claims any bit less ridiculous.

You are now claiming that Andaman Islanders are the same race as Pakistanis, 4000 kilometres away. And because they are both South Asians, Admananese and Pakistanis are much more closely related genetically than Lensk regionSiberians, who are part of the European/South Asian group, are to Han Chinese.

You are also claiming that the European Kyrgistanis are more closely related genetically to the European inhabitants of Moscow, 3000km away, than they are to the inhabitants of East Asian Sichuan province, the same distance away. And of course that Kyrgistanis are morphologically the same as Muscovites, and morphologically distinguishable from Chinese.

That rephrasing doesn’t change anything at all. The claim is still just as ridiculous. And I am still calling you out.

Please provide evidence for your claim that the genetic distances between the European and East Asian population pair “Lensk Siberian” and “Han Chinese” is greater than those the South Asian population pair “Andamanese” and “Pakistani”. Both population pairs are at equivalent geographic distance.

Please provide evidence for your claim that the genetic distances between the European and East Asian population pair “Kyrgistani” and “Han Chinese” is greater than those the European population pair “Kyrgistani” and “Muscovite”. Both population pairs are at equivalent geographic distance.

You made the claim that genetic distances for population pairs with one European population and one East Asian are greater than those for pairs at equivalent geographic distance within South Asia.

I am calling bullshit on that claim.

Let’s see how Chen tries to weasel out of this one.

Oh, there are races within Homo sapiens, all right.

It’s just that only one of them is still living, the others are extinct.
Unless you can cite one example of a living human being who isn’t classified as species Homo sapiens sapiens in a scientific paper?

I already dealt with Coyne’s cognitive dissonance, thanks.

Already dealt with craniofacial features re: East Africans, and other cites on environmental vs heritable factors in skull morphology.

You tell us. Please, name the morphological features you’ve used.

Umm, they aren’t categories at all. Just pictures. Because you haven’t listed the criteria for inclusion.

yeah, no. When it’s more “intergradation” than “cluster”, it’s not really a valid subspecies. It’s a clinal continuum.

I would say the same about your claim that Coyne “fails” because there is some degree of gene flow between groups that you describe as clinal. The geographic separation was none theless significant enough for as Coyne puts it “patently obvious” morphological differences amongst the major groups - sufficient for racial categorization in other species.

I mean imagine if we had this kind of hairsplitting with other species? So elastic as to be meaningless? Tell that to the Turtle Taxonomy Group. I suppose there are no races of Turtle given that when identifying the “major patterns of variation”, the word “major” is in their words, “elusive”.

What are the major patterns of variation within the human species? According to Risch they occur between the major racial groups:

If morphological differences are patently obvious, then why can’t you name the morphological features?

Really? I was unaware that curly-haired dogs are considered a different subspecies from straight-haired dogs. Or black cats were considered a separate subspecies from gingers.

Since that seems to be the level of morphological difference you’re using in your “I know it when I see it” approach to human subspecies differentiation. But feel free to correct me if I’m wrong, and you’re using an entirely different set of features.

Blake,

Your petty games are tiring. The major populations that we’re referring to (e.g.,Mongoloids, Caucasoids, Australoids, Negroids, and Amerindoids) are frequently referred to as continental races, continental ancestry groups, or continental populations. In this context, the adjective ‘continental’ is being used to modify ‘population clusters’ and to distinguish those major ones (which overlap with continents) from minor subregional ones. Chen is on good standing here. Given that we are stating the populations in reference, and given the common usage of the term ‘continental’ in this context, is it really necessary to qualify the term (e.g., ‘in both Americans,’ ‘below the Sahara’)? I think not.

Can’t come up with a good counterargument can you? I’ve been waiting since I roasted you in that last StraightDope race discussion.

One could even doubt about your definition of a roast coming from you. **Blake **may be annoying, but he is annoyingly correct here and also in the past when dealing with you.

BTW Google vomit is still a vomit even if it comes from Google scholar, as the first link tell us:

http://www.nejm.org/doi/full/10.1056/NEJMsb022863

So yeah, I do not think that will help your position by reminding all where many of the ones wishing to a return to the old ways are coming from, geneticists drop old definitions of race not just because of PC (although that is a factor) but because old human definitions of race are not very useful.

Feelings and wishful thinking does not make good science as **MrDibble **points out.

I already mentioned the 5 classical races: Mongoloids, Caucasoids, Australoids, Negroids, and Amerindoids. Could someone explain to me why these groups couldn’t — or couldn’t recently — qualify as subspecies, given how many non-human populations are classified? The geographic race criteria is: (a) share a unique geographical range or habitat, (b) share a group of phylogenetically concordant phenotypic characters, (c) share a unique natural history relative to other subdivisions of the species, and (d) differ taxonomically from other subdivisions of the species (O’Brien and Mayr (1991). Bureaucratic Mischief: Recognizing Endangered Species and Subspecies). There is no consensus on what (d) means. But one measure is the 75% rule. Which has been interpreted a number of ways. And one interpretation is simply that members of a population can be assigned correctly to their population with greater than 75% accuracy (Bodmer and Cavalli-sforza, 1976; Wright, 1984; Remsen, 2010). So, for example, Sewall Wright noted in his magnum opus: “There is also no question, however, that populations that have long inhabited separated parts of the world should, in general, be considered to be of different subspecies by the usual criterion that most individuals of such populations can be allocated correctly by inspection.” Mayr (2002) noted: “And the geographic races of the human races – established before the voyages of European discovery and subsequent rise of a global economy – agree in most characteristics with the geographic races of animals. (“The biology of race and the concept of equality.”) Humans can obviously be accurately classified into the above mentioned groups, for example, by craniometric and dentition (e.g, Relethford, 2009). And the human populations mentioned obviously meet the other criteria. Hence these 5 races can, consistent with the criteria, rules, and standards applied to many non-human populations, be objectively called races qua subspecies.

Show me where I’m in error.

Simply put, you do not read cites.

As pointed out many times before, there is no agreement on what old fashion definition of race should be used, the only thing you are reduced to is to give us quotes with not much of a context and usually the attempt at used the old definitions are not followed by many other researchers, not much traction there regardless of your wishful thoughts.

I should note that frequently no quantitative criteria is set. For example Remsen (2010) notes:

This only strengthens my case that by the geographic race concept, the said human populations qualify as races, given the diagnostic criteria and standards applied when it comes to non-human populations. I understand that some of you have a problem with the relative ambiguity and arbitrariness involved in subspecies delineation. But that’s not a problem specific to humans.

They may, but they hope that others won’t. This pattern has been going on for a long time with several posters. Thank you for taking the bullet and doing all the leg work.

Meh, as pointed before you need to cite a genetic scientific group where all follow that delineation, do you have any?

There’s data and there’s interpretations. For example, I’ve cited Relethford (2009) in defense of taxonomic human races. But here is his interpretation of the data, in whole:

.

There is no actual conflict, of course, because we are talking about different things. Relethford finds the application of ‘race’ to specific human populations to be arbitrary – I don’t. In my view, such an application is consistent with the standards used for non-human populations, and therefore not arbitrary. Whether those non-human standards are, themselves, arbitrary is, to my mind, another issue.

So in regards to the Blake-Chen debate concerning the use of ‘continental race/ancestry/population’ to describe ‘the major population clusters which overlap with continents’ as opposed to ‘populations strictly defined by continental origin,’ I cited references which used ‘continental’ in the former sense. My point was simply to show that Chen is in good standing with his usage and that Blake is playing games. I never suggested that the authors of the cited papers agreed with Chen’s position, just usage.
That should have been obvious.

Ok, as pointed out before in previous discussions, I agree that there is no agreement. And I agree that by many race concepts, human populations aren’t meaningfully racinated. And I even agree that by more conservative usages of the geographic race concept, in particular, they aren’t. I’m not treating ‘race’ as an ontological category, like some here. It’s a classification schema. This is why I’ve never understood the statement that ‘There are no human races.’ What does that mean? That there are no human racial classification schemas? That’s silly. The best interpretation of this statement that I could come up with is: “That human populations don’t qualify as races given a commonly used classification schema employed for non-human populations.” I’ve been trying to show that this statement is false. I haven’t been trying to show that ‘There are human races’ in the sense that ‘Human races are ontological categories’ or something else.

What are you asking for? I don’t know what “genetic scientific group” means.

Once again - if black cats and ginger cats are the same subspecies, and curly-haired dogs and straight-haired dogs are the same subspecies, why would the similar piddly morphological differences between various human geographic populations qualify them for subspecies status?

If race were to have any meaningful instructive value, mustn’t Africa contain numerous, and probably the majority, of human races, considering that (as many have stated and cited) Africa contains more genetic variation then the rest of the world combined?

Non-human populations are often classified on the basis of “piddly morphological differences.” I’m not sure how classifications work for domesticated animals. Typically the subgroups are called breeds. What’s the difference between subspecies and breeds? Is the latter a sub-subspecies? If human races were defined as ‘breeds’ instead of ‘subspecies’ would that makes them ‘not biologically real’?

Anyways, the difference between human geographic populations, at least non-continetal ones, can be relatively substantial. Sarich discusses this in “Race: The reality of human differences”:

I’m not sure what the average phenetic (craniometric) difference is between major populations. The craniometric FST is around .12, as compared to a between Gorilla FST of about .2 (page 1058).

[QUOTE=iiandyiiii]
If race were to have any meaningful instructive value, mustn’t Africa contain numerous, and probably the majority, of human races, considering that (as many have stated and cited) Africa contains more genetic variation then the rest of the world combined?
[/QUOTE]

Not sure what “instructive value” means. It would be nice to know how much of the genetic difference within Africans is neutral.

Sarich?

(PDF) file

-Mark Nathan Cohen, SUNY University Distinguished Professor of Anthropology, Department of Anthropology, SUNY Plattsburgh, NY

So yeah, just so you stop playing the “I do not get it card” what I’m saying is that you need to point at scientific groups that agree to use the old fashion definitions because history shows that the ones proposing that are not getting much respect where it counts.