To make a long story short, the law firm where I worked for the past year seems to be slowly going kablooey. A month ago, the partner I work for decided to leave and take his practice to another firm, and bring me with him.
On the one hand, this is good, as I am still gainfully employed. On the other hand, it meant that I left the prior firm about 2 weeks before completing my first year, and they don’t seem to want to pay me for the vacation time I earned over that period, even on a prorated basis. And the annoying part is that it’s not even like I had the choice of staying; the practice area I was working in (immigration) has nobody left now that the partner has departed, so I would have been out of a job if I hadn’t gone with him.
The HR policy was very vague; the entirety of employee benefits information I was given fits on one page. The time off section reads, in its entirety, as follows:
"Your vacation time is based on your employment date and years of service. It is broken down as follows:
1 completed year of service - 2 weeks paid vacation.
6 - 10 years of service - 3 weeks paid vacation
10 or more years of service - 4 weeks paid vacation
[LAW FIRM] provides up to 10 paid absent days, including sick time in each calendar year. During the first 6 months of employment, no paid absent days are available. For the first calendar year of employment, paid absent days will be prorated for the amount of the year remaining at the end of the new employee’s first 6 months."
Now a colleague here told me that IL law requires payment for all accrued vacation time, i.e. that they can’t require completion of a full year before paying for accrued vacation time upon departure (and I was only 2 weeks short of finishing a year anyway).
Any idea whether this is true? The following links appear to lend ammo to that assertion (says my stepmom, an employment attorney licensed in NY and IL, but who hasn’t practiced in IL in years), but of course, the devil is in the case law:
http://www.ilga.gov/commission/jcar/admincode/056/056003000B05200R.html
Looks like they do owe me for vacation pay, no? Cites would be appreciated - my boss is going to bat for me, but he’s not an employment lawyer, and if the firm ends up dissolving, they may have very little incentive to play by the rules. Your assistance would be greatly appreciated, as it’s worth half a month’s pay to me.
ETA more ammo from stepmom: "Il Labor Law:
(820 ILCS 115/5) (from Ch. 48, par. 39m?5)
Sec. 5. Every employer shall pay the final compensation of separated employees in full, at the time of separation, if possible, but in no case later than the next regularly scheduled payday for such employee. Where such employee requests in writing that his final compensation be paid by check and mailed to him, the employer shall comply with this request.
Unless otherwise provided in a collective bargaining agreement, whenever a contract of employment or employment policy provides for paid vacations, and an employee resigns or is terminated without having taken all vacation time earned in accordance with such contract of employment or employment policy, the monetary equivalent of all earned vacation shall be paid to him or her as part of his or her final compensation at his or her final rate of pay and no employment contract or employment policy shall provide for forfeiture of earned vacation time upon separation.
(Source: P.A. 83?199.)"
I guess it comes down to whether I can be considered to have “eanred” the vacation time, even without completing the entire year.