It’s been claimed that before the American Civil War people would commonly say “The United States are…” and only afterwards did it change to “The United States is…” Whether or not that’s so, it’s certainly true that the latter is far more common today.
What about in other languages though? Does the USA take the singular or the plural version of the verb?
In German it takes the plural (both for articles and verb), for the full form die Vereinigten Staaten von Amerika as well as for the shorter forms die Vereinigten Staaten and die USA.
Garry Wills wrote a book on Lincoln making the claim that before him people generally used the plural for United States and after him people generally used the singular. (Emphasis on generally: it’s not an iron law.) It wouldn’t be surprising for those in other countries, not having gone through that internal trauma, would stick with an older usage.
Come to think of it, does anybody say “United Mexican States?” Do they call it Estados Unidos Mexicanos in Mexico or other Spanish-speaking countries?
I’ve never heard it called anything but Mexico in English, either by native-born Americans or people of Mexican origin. I only know that Mexico isn’t its official name because pedants occasionally feel the need to point out that there is more than one United States in America.
In Google Translator, in the sentence “The USA is in North America”
French uses plural article, singular verb
Spanish uses plural article, plural verb
Portuguese uses plural article, plural verb
German uses “die” and plural verb. (If USA is feminine, ‘die’ is the same singular or plural)
You forgot Brazil. Both countries take the plural when their names are said in the full form (the noun is States, Estados - identical in Spanish and Portuguese), the singular when the short forms are used. And it’s not “United Mexican States”, it’s “United States of Mexico” - Estados Unidos de México, not Estados Unidos Mexicanos.
That’s kind of an exception though, and it has to do with a grammatical concept which exists in Spanish but not in English: nombres compuestos (multi-word nouns). I didn’t want to confuse the issue by bringing up that kind of concept, as every time it crops up we go back and forth for several posts and hijack yet another thread with it.
Estados Unidos ha vuelto a apretar los aranceles (United States has tightened tariffs again) - singular because the whole group Estados Unidos is being treated as a noun. Your example, same, the whole thing is being treated as a single noun. But Los Estados Unidos se han ofrecido como mediadores en Oriente Medio (the United States have offered to mediate in the Middle East), it’s not that individual states have offered, but that the structure is being treated as a nominal syntagm where the only noun is the plural Estados.
But they’re still all based on a grammatical structure that does not exist in English. As a rule to give to a foreigner without confusing him, “treat it as plural for all cases” is much more useful than explaining nominal syntagms, nouns and compound nouns.
Really it partakes of both, as in a mystery. The orotund use by old blowhards of ‘These United States’ would indicate that.
Then again some of us feel Calhoun wanted a good kicking, daily.
Wrong question for Welsh. It’s a plural noun, but all expressed nouns in Welsh take a singular verb. Looking around online, it seems like the pronoun used for the US is singular most of the time (but a feminine noun, so not “state”—must be a metonymic substitution for “the country”). Other times, though, it’s plural.
That is what Google Translate says, but the translation is not correct. I’ve never seen a singular verb used with États-Unis in the “wild.” It’s always “les États-Unis sont . . .”
It was a pointless answer in an episode of Pointless. I actually felt rather proud that I knew it. Anyway, on the 10 peso coin I just looked at the country name is written as Estados Unidos Mexicanos. I’ve never heard anyone actually call it that though.