I guess we are talking past each other. An Uber ride, with no blood or broken legs, is assumed to be a consensual contract.
A sexual encounter, with no blood or broken legs, is assumed to be consensual.
The argument is, “I was too drunk to consent!” Why is the proof different for that versus the Uber ride?
You argued for a “heightened” standard for sexual contact. I ask then, can’t my wife fuck me when she gets drunk? It was her idea, not mine.