OK, this is purely GQ, I have no political axe to grind. Just what is this ‘inherent contempt’? I know we’re a long way off this yet but if the House did send her to the hoosegow for refusing to testify could the President spring her either by overruling the House or making her immune from prosecution or whatever?
No. In Ex Parte Grossman, the Supreme Court held that the President could not pardon a person from inherent contempt of Congress, as it was not an “offense against the United States.” It was instead, the Court said, essentially a judicial act, and a presidential scuttling would violate the separation of powers.
But the finding of inherent contempt is made by Congress, based on rules it sets itself. Doesn’t that infringe on the judicial branch as well? And it’s up to the executive to enforce penalties, there’s no Congressional jail.
Is Grossman a mainstream contemporary opinion or some dusty thing from years ago?
Inherent contempt is a power that Congress inherited from the English parliament. That’s why we use the word “inherent,” to indicate that this is a power that’s inherent to the nature of being the legislature. This wiki article gives a good overview:
It depends. The President has, of course, no reach into state courts or proceedings. At the federal level, the President cannot pardon civil contempt, because the contumacious conduct is an affront to the court, and the civil contempt charge is therefore remedial.
The President can pardon federal criminal contempt, however, because that is an offense against the United States.
Civil contempt’s sanctions are not punitive. The sanctions imposed by civil contempt are intended to compel compliance with the lawful order being defied by the contemnor. While the contemnor is jailed, it is said that he holds the key to his own cell: to gain his release, all he must do is purge the contempt by complying with the order. Nor is this a criminal matter – it’s purely civil.
A bill of attainder is a legislative determination that a named person is guilty of a crime, a finding made with no trial, and for which a punitive sanction is imposed. There is no aspect by which the target may purge himself of the finding of guilt.
Thanks for the information. This still outrages my separation of powers sense–perhaps I have an unusually well-developed one
For me the key is that it’s a holdover from the English Parliament, in which the legislature is also the executive. Supreme Court notwithstanding, this makes no sense to me.
What WOULD happen to this woman if found in “inherent contempt”–what could the Republicans do to her?
Here’s a Slate article which discusses the evolution of the contempt power:
So, the power originally developed as a way to keep the Executive (or other government officials) from impeding the legislature’s ability to do its job. So, you could think of the power as protecting the separation of powers, rather than impeding it.
Additionally, as the Supreme Court pointed out in Anderson v. Dunn in 1821, if Congress didn’t have this power, it would be difficult for Congress to prevent disruption of its ability to do its job. The quote that’s usually cited is this one: