Isn’t it true that the only way someone could answer YES to the thread title’s question is if they’d been tested for Covid-19? Because any symptoms of mild Covid-19 could also be symptoms of something else instead?
We had another thread: Dopers who speculate they have (have already had) COVID-19. In that thread, several Dopers said they thought they’d had it. I was skeptical and asked:
to which I only got one answer.
It sometimes sounds to me like people have forgotten that other infectious diseases exist, and they think “I was sick, therefore I must have had Covid-19,” where in any other year they would have thought something like “Must have been a touch of the flu.”