“Is ‘pedophile’ a sexual preferece? One that cannot be legally discriminated against?
Hypothetical: If someplace claims not to discriminate on grounds of sexual orientation, would they be ‘forced’ to not discriminate against him or her, or be forced to change their policy? Is pedophilia even a legally recognized sexual preference for anti-discrimination policies?”
I’m repeating the OP because it seems to me that many posters are ignoring what was actually asked.
“Is Pedophilia a sexual preference?”
Yes. Which only means: it relates to sexual stimulation, and some people prefer it.
“One that can not legally be discriminated against?”
I know of no law that specifies pedophilia as a sexual preference that cannot be discriminated against. As far as I know, every jurisdiction has some sort of law that would make active (ie, “practicing”) pedophilia illegal–presuming that the activity involved is sexual contact, sexual inducement, something like indecent exposure, etc. The only “iffy” cases might be premarital sexual relations between a legal adult and legal minor, followed by legal marriage.
“…would they be ‘forced’ to not discriminate against him or her…Is pedophilia even a legally recognized sexual preference for anti-discrimination policies?”
The words of the law get interpreted. You can bet that if a judge interpreted “no discrimination based upon sexual preference” to cover pedophilia, rape, bestiality, indecent expose, etc.–the decision would be overturned on appeal, the law would be quickly amended for clarification, and the judge would be looking at some serious sanctions. “Sexual preference” is almost always taken to mean–and is often expicitly defined as–hetero-/homosexuality.
Impact of sexual-preference antidiscrimination laws in states with a sodomy statute? Beats me. I suppose you could prefer it till the cows come home, as long as you don’t actually act on it. In truth, I would think the sodomy law would be viewed as pretty much unenforcible under such circumstances.
As to the further implicit issue of whether someone who discloses a “…fondness for pubescent teens…a hobby of travelling to countries where the age of consent in 13 or 14 and engaging in legal sex with those children…” is protected from discrimination in hiring, dismissal, housing, etc–not by a typical “sexual preference” law, no. But I think some states may have a general “no discrimination in employment without good cause” statute, or perhaps a basic “right to privacy” provision. Here things could get interesting. But the obvious necessities of the job are usually accepted as a defense: you won’t be penalized if you refuse to hire a self-avowed pedophile as a camp counselor, a fantasizing rapist as a gynecologist, etc. IMHO.