Are Shakespearean works copyrighted, or considered public domain? If so, who holds the copyright?
Tim
“My hovercraft is full of eels.”
The works themselves were written long before copyright was even thought of, so they’re public-domain.
What can be copyrighted is everything else about a published work containing them. Rules vary a little, but most countries follow the Berne Convention (see http://www.law.cornell.edu/treaties/berne/overview.html ).
The usual copyright protection for collections includes editing, selection and arrangement of the material. Various courts have ruled that “obvious” arrangements (e.g. alphabetical or chronological) aren’t covered. So you could publish the plays arranged by date, and anybody else could do the same with no violation. But if you arranged them by some original method, you might be able to claim copyright.
Bob the Random Expert
“If we don’t have the answer, we’ll make one up.”
[quote]
But if you arranged them by some original method, you might be able to claim copyright.[\quote]
For instance, if you grouped them by what mental illnesses the protaganist suffers from, lowest to highest body count…
Actually, IIRC, the British crown was just about getting into the habit of granting the right of copy just about or shortly after the time of the Bard. I’ll look it up when I get home.
project gutenberg (http://www.promo.net/pg/ talks a lot about copyright law, since they make freely available text (books, etc) that is no longer copyrighted.
The first formal copyright law in the UK was passed in 1710. It was called the Statute of Anne. Prior to that, there were agreement with printers who got exclusive rights to print certain authors. That probably existed in Shakespeare’s time.
Excellent examples, Lisa! I wish I’d thought of them. 
Bob the Random Expert
“If we don’t have the answer, we’ll make one up.”