I posed the above question in the title to my parents recently and was rather stunned to hear how they rejected outright any such possibility. They almost seemed offended that I could posit forth such a notion, that is was unfathomable to them that the American standard living comes, at least in part, at the expense of some other countries’ lower standard of living. I have always wondered about this, and suppose that I’ve always assumed that, indeed, we live the way we do because others do not live as well as us.
I have pondered though not fully articulated this question for years now. My intuition says that it does (it’s kind of implicit in this hackneyed statistic: “With 5% of the world population, the US consumes 25% of the world’s energy”), but I wonder how one would go about answering such a question, given that there seem to be so many different variables that in order to qualify/quantify this answer, they would all have to be considered. I wouldn’t really even know where to begin.
Anyway, I thought I would at least run this by the Teeming Millions, and see if you think it’s even a valid question to attempt to answer. (I checked the archives and couldn’t come up with any similarly phrased question.)
Thanks.