A friend of mine said that she was sexually harassed, by members of a law firm no less. I asked her about suing them, and she told me that there was a curious provision to the law that requires a size limit-IIRC fifteen, before the law could be invoked. I don’t buy this explanation, but, she may be telling the truth. Is she? I’m not interested in torts or other stuff, just sexual harassment laws themselves.
Next question: Is there a company size provision before the FMLA becomes operative?