I’m writing a letter to the editor regarding an editorial that ran in today’s paper. I already know most of the points I want to make, but I wanted to run something by the teeming thousands for their valuable input.
This paragraph was originally in the article:
I’m particularly interested in the accuracy of the last sentence. What exactly did the Islamic Empire have to do with Ferdinand and Isabella’s ability to fund a voyage? Did the Islamic Empire really stretch through Spain? How much of this paragraph is true?
Indeed, Islamic occupation did indeed stretch into Spain. In fact, Islamic armies conquered all of Spain in the early Middle Ages and portions of southern France before being stopped at Tours. European Christians began a long, long, long battle to rid Spain of the Moors (Muslims). The last stronghold fell during Ferdinand and Isabella’s reign, allowing them to consolidate control of the peninsula and freed up funds to give our friend Columbus. So far as I can tell, the entire paragraph is accurate.
What Neurotik, Jonathan Chance, and SuaSponte said.
In addition though, don’t forget that at the same time Islam was on the retreat in western Europe, it was expanding in eastern Europe under the Ottomans. The Ottomans fist European foothold was established at Gallipoli in 1354. By 1492 they held what would today be mainland Greece, Albania, Macedonia, most of Serbia ( up to the gates of Belgrade ), Bosnia, Bulgaria, and southern Roumania ( Wallachia ).
In light of that, I would amend your sentence a bit and say, “…wasn’t expelled from Spain until…”.
This is what’s great about this board. I can post a query and get all these responses in just an hour.
I wrote the letter and just finished sending it off. Thanks to you guys, I didn’t include anything regarding that paragraph. No need to blast it if there isn’t a problem with it, right?