tomndebb, I thank you for your answer. I think you are right that I’m asking a question which may not have been overtly asked earlier in this thread. So I will try again to ask it, or them, and I will try to clearly explain myself along the way.
Again I will start with a necessarily simplistic description of the incident. Feel free to tell me if I’m incorrect in major details. I will be necessarily incorrect on the minor ones.
[ul][1.] The violence erupted in direct response to a remark made about the founder of the Islamic religion.
Therefore I think that this is a concrete example of violence in response to an expressed idea, an idea so hypothetical that it would tickle my funny bone were the results not so tragic.
[2.] The violence was originally directed by followers of the religion at the newspaper which printed the remark.
…Which implies to me that it was at the outset a considered response. The place which caused the trouble was targeted and destroyed. After that the violence spun out of control and I won’t make any observations about what happened afterward, except to note that with 200 people dead it must have been a pretty big riot, and it managed to travel all the way to the capital city.
[3] The author of the offending article has been singled out in a religious proclamation demanding her death for writing the article.
Actually, it’s more than that. She’s been officially blamed for causing the incident. Not the rioters, not the murderers, and certainly not the religion, but the author.
[4] The religious proclamation demanding her death was broadcast on national television, and delivered by a government official.
This implies to me that the fatwa has some sort of official weight, and if I knew more about Islam in general I’d probably know whether or not Nigerian Sharia allows for fatwas demanding someone’s death. [/ul]
But I don’t, which is why I’m going to ask this question again, rephrased.
Can’t we ascribe some sort of responsibility for this incident to the religion itself?
Again, the followers of the religion were offended, the followers of the religion rioted and killed people, the followers of the religion assessed the blame upon the author of the offending article, and the followers of the religion then used their political power to issue the death demand. The death demand may well be sanctioned by the religious and official law of that land.
Why can’t I look at that incident in Nigeria and state, with complete assurance, that Islam was a major–if not the central–contributing cause? (And with a nod to tom, I’ll add, “in that place at that time.”)
And if that is the case (seriously, I will happy to be disabused), why can’t I conclude that in certain instances Islam in practice condones violence against those who would ridicule their religion, condones the issuance of proclamations asking for the death of the person upon whom they assess the blame, and condones the use of its own law and its own governments to permit the issuance of those proclamations?
And finally, what in the Sam Hill is peaceful about a religion which can be so horribly misconstrued by its own followers that such a thing can happen? Right now, I think it’s rather the opposite–that it’s indicative of a propensity for causing violence that runs straight from the mob on the street to the heads of state. And right now I think there’s something terribly wrong with that, because I’m an ignorant American who could use a good learnin’.
I encourage your comments, and I promise in advance to be civil and considerate of all responses.