I’ve got a question about the legality of using a job application in lieu of a more proper form for update information. Some background:
I work for a national retail chain, and at my particular store we’ve been having some “issues” with one of my co-workers. Said employee (now “S”) was requesting time off for the holidays and a second job. The situation escalated to where shouting could be heard from the back, and now we three “youngins” are being required to fill out a new employment application due to a change in availability (be it school, second job, etc.). As it was explained to me, only the “availability” section was to be filled out and returned to the corporate office.
I have never heard of such practice as filling out a completely new employment application form just for availability changes. Availability forms I can believe as feasibly existing, but filling out an entire new work contract?
A job application is not a contract. A company can use its own internal forms, such as job apps, for any purpose they see fit. My best guess is that since the current application forms have an availability section and they are readily available, they’ve decided it’s cheaper to make use of it than to create an entirely new form for the purpose.
That’s the way I’m betting, too. Can’t say for sure, because the OP hasn’t given us enough information (and what he/she did say is confusing or inconsistent).
Thanks for clearing up the job app/contract for me, first of all. I was under the impression that there was a more proper form for such availability changes (as there seems to be for everything else at this company…)
It’s only the availability section they’re wanting me to fill out. I’m in Texas.
I felt uncomfortable signing anything before first asking an outside party. The reason I was hesitant is because of my current environment, as it can be described as hostile and has instilled a bit of mistrust within me of upper management. I’m just trying to be sure this isn’t going to bite me later on.
And also, sorry for being confusing. On final posting I did omit a lot of detail to keep the involved anonymous. The whole situation that this came up is just… strange. I’ve never heard of such practice, others I’ve talked to have not heard of such thing, so thanks for clarifying for me (and bearing with me, too. I’m out of practice in posting to boards and forming coherent arguments).
I’ll be back later with the dirty gritty bits if there’s further clarification required. I’m just pressed for time (as in, have 5 minutes before I leave for job).