In neraly every single thread about globalisation, the assertion that globalisation only benifits the stockholders is tossed out, yet never substantiated. I would like to understand by exactly what mechanism globalism benifits these stockholders.
It seems to me that, at least under a theoretical approach, globalisation can be demonstrated to be of little benifit to the producer. Globalisation leads to decreased production costs which pushes the supply curve to the right. This means that the equilibrium is now at a greater quantity with lower prices. Total Revenue can either go up or down depending on the shape of the demand curve but seems to be largely unaffected.
Now, the obvious objection is that the theoretical model breaks down and real economies aren’t perfect. And the obvious way that they break down is that companies will engage in monopolistic behaviours, dropping costs while keeping prices steady to stiff the average joe while pocketing the cash.
Now, here is where I get into the meat of the matter. It seems to me that a lot of economic reasoning is done on case studies and examples. Now, these may be an effective tool but they contain several subtle flaws. Examples are primarily drawn from circumstances you are familiar with and, for the majority of people, this is from companies directly dealing with consumers; Walmart, Nike, Starbucks etc. However, the bulk of business is businesses dealing with businesses; steel workers deeling with assembly plants dealing with distrbutors. Now, we come to the apparent paradox, it seems to me that any block of companies that can get co-ordinated enough to act as a monopoly when selling can also act as a monopsony when buying. That is, acting as a single until when buying in order to force a lower than equilibrium price. Walmart would be the textbook example of this, squeezing lower and lower prices out of all it’s suppliers.
Now, unless I’m missing another argument for shareholder profits, it seems a bit odd to me that somehow companies have this monopolistic power, which enables them to earn undeserved profits, yet lack this monopsonic power which prevents them from doing so. I would assume that one would come with the other and that the end result ultimately benifits the consumer through lower prices, as conventional economic theory suggest. Did I miss anything?