There are two items in the article that I have questions and doubts about.
As to the first, it seems pretty damn premature to determine whether this was a crime, since it seems impossible there could have been any real investigation since the charge was made. That is, unless the second claim by the deputy is true, that there is ample precedence for coming to this conclusion. Personally, I don’t recall any similar cases, FWIW, which isn’t a whole lot.
So, what is the history behind this?