Justice Scalia cites a foreign Judgement

It would change everything. The majority of the Court held that you have to apply every word in a statute when interpreting it. Scalia states that that approach is wrong and unnecessary (and I agree FTR). He relies on a House of Lords judgment to support his claim. You remove that and the outcome of the case is totally different.

Does that mean that Scalia’s ruling is void in the State Oklahoma?

Not in the slightest. He goes on to point out that in other sections of the same code, his approach is followed:

And:

The House of Lords opinion is an interesting historical footnote, not a linchpin of his reasoning.

So Scalia’s ideology steers him to help the struggling person who is declaring bankruptcy by allowing him to take the car allowance even thought his car is paid for?

You know what - that just isn’t true. Let’s actually look at the opinion to see where Kennedy cites to Dudgeon. He does it twice.

This time the purpose is clear - it is to dispute a premise of Bowers that a claim to a right to consensual homosexual conduct was “insubstantial in Western civilization.”

Here’s the second time. Once again, it is undercutting the concept that Bowers claimed that there were broadly shared values at stake.

Kennedy didn’t cite the European cases “to show that laws prohibiting homosexual conduct run afoul of human rights.” He cited them to critique Burger’s (vicious and meanspirited) concurrence to Bowers.

The quoting of *Dudgeon * in Lawrence in order to rebut Bower was also misguided. Dudgeon was preceeded by the case of X v UK where the Court had upheld discriminatory laws on age of consent (which IIRC still hold the field) and both it and Laskey b United Kingdom in 1993 both confirmed that certain homosexual act could be restricted on the protection of health basis. Dudgeon was also decided on the basis of the right to privacy (Article 8 of ECHR not on equal treatment grounds), another reason why the citing was misguided.

What he said

He used the HoL judgment in support of above proposition. The question was whether the word “applicable” caused there to be imported into the section a rule of law which prevented a deduction. He stated that the word “applicable” added on its own nothing to the statute and hence the said regulation was not imported. He used the HoL judgment in support. The outome is different otherwise. What he states later is to bolster his outcome, that other parts of teh code allow for deductions, so why not this one. Interesting, but his opinion would make no sense just based on that.

That’s as may be. But to claim that the purpose of quoting Dudgeon was as demonstration “that laws prohibiting homosexual conduct run afoul of human rights” is misrepresenting the case.

Yes, OK. I should have known better than to take a shortcut in my summary.

Its a dissenting judgement, it has no weight anywhere except as being persuasive.

You haven’t met many Americans, have you?

I want to see him cite Sharia or Confucian beliefs. That would be worth the price of a ticket.

Here’s a simulation of the force at which heads explode from such an event.