I’ve read these Supreme Court threads with interest, but haven’t yet seen fit to but in and posit my 2 cents on Scalia’s judicial philosophy. But I have to say that, in my opinion, “textualism” or “originalism” is, at best disingenuous.
If we are only supposed to look at the original intent of the words being written, we are left with a woefully stagnant constitution, being only 7 pages in length, which needs to be constantly amended to reflect the constant change of society.
For example, I’m damn near certain that the writers of the 1st amendment didn’t intend for speech to apply to communication over the telephone, radio, television, or the internet, insofar as they were writing before the invention of indoor plumbing. If we adopt an originalist approach to their writing, then, we have to conclude that the 1st amendment is silent on all speech except the spoken word, made face to face.
Similarly, the original meaning of interstate commerce didn’t consider airplanes. Does congress not have the power to regulate commerce that leaves one state and arrives at another via the air, simply because the writers of the constitution didn’t intend for this meaning to exist?
Or, if we can harken back to the 8th amendment (for just a second), are we to believe that, should the present government pass a new amendment that “re-affirmed the 8th amendment in its entirety”, suddenly the 8th amendment has changed meaning, merely because the understanding of cruel and unusual today is different than what it was in the 18th century?
I’m fairly confident that most people will say my examples are absurd. If you say that, then, you are conceeding the point that the meaning of words does change, and that we can’t merely apply the original meaning (especially when laws, amendments, constitutions, and the like are the products of groups of people, none of whom may have ever been in agreement as to the original meaning in the first place). At this point, then, we are arguing degrees of adaptation, not whether the words should be adapted at all.
Please understand, I am not particularly radical in my own interpretation of the constitution. Despite my own progressive bent, I would likely be the justice who writers a lot of opinions saying, “while I don’t agree with this, the law says…” I do not support “inventing” terms not actually present in the constitution (and, for this reason, I think that Roe v. Wade was wrongly decided, despite my own opinion as to the right of a woman to elect to have an abortion). But I do believe that we ought to be interpreting words based on their contemporary meaning, and not locking ourselves into some static concept that has long been abandoned in the world outside the courtroom (and, gasp, I even believe that foreign nations can provide persuasive precedent for how our words can be understood; this, I hasten to add, is not to say that we are ever bound by foreign ideas or decisions).
Scalia’s ideas about the 14th amendment, then, make sense to me. But, no matter how well understood in the 17th or 18th century, we should be similarly allowed to interpret government provisions regarding other matters in a modern light. To do otherwise invites a jurisprudence that loses its legitimacy, and risks a government to static to adapt to a society in flux.