[QUOTE=John Mace]
Well, it’s “clear purpose” is to limit the punishment given to convicted criminals. Unless, of course, you choose to ignore the historical context of that phrase, when it’s history is well documented. It’s one thing to be ignorant of that context, it’s another to continue to ignore it once it has been explained…
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Of course thats its “clear purpose”, where have I disagreed? Hell, I’ve had to state my agreement with that about 10 times already! You keep coming back at me as though I disagreed, and then proceed to attack the supposed reasons for a non-existent disagreement. And on that non-existent basis, you then proceed to accuse me of stubborn ignorance for holding much the same opinion on that as you do! Seriously, WTF?
Sometimes its easier than other times. Like when people make a law forbidding gay striped unicorns, I’m going to make a wild leap and assume that they are opposed to gay striped unicorns. Crazy, huh?
Now, if I were to suggest that they did so because they were closeted hippo humpers, that would be mind reading.
As to the Fifth, again, we are in accord, with this one minor proviso: that a strict literal reading of the Fifth does not explicitly support such a reading. It is an emanation, a penumbra, an interpretation. And I got no problem with that, I think our understanding of the Framers and their intent makes that a wholly justifiable inference.
One of the ways you might induce a man to testify against himself is by applying torture. But is not the only way, you can ask him a question he shouldn’t be required to answer. Or you can pull a Perry Mason on him. And, of course, the word “torture” nowhere appears therein. But we are assured that any such attempts aren’t kosher. I’m cool with that.
Put another way, of course the Fifth forbids torture to obtain confession, we can be assured of that because the Framers forbid cruelty even to the convicted! Given the other protections accorded, we are entirely safe in assuming that they intend those same protections to apply to the un-convicted as well! Tres duh, mais non?
And if an inference and interpretation can be legitimate (and we agree that it can, apparently), that means another inference, interpretation, and/or penumbra might be legitimate as well. The “right to privacy”, for instance. The right to total control over one’s own body. Stuff like that.
The snapper being: if a man of whatever scholarly credentials should state that an absence of an explicit protection means no such protection exists in the Constitution…such a man is a poopy-head. Because interpretation of umbras and emanations is a part of the accepted framework of Constitutional law, its far too late to call “Kings X”.
What part of that puts a burr under your saddle?