I know that the intent to steal has been acknowledged in the premise – but, lacking that, how, exactly, is the guy’s behavior objectively different from any other shopper’s? We all put things in our shopping cart…and then decide to put them back on the shelf again.
Intent is not absolute. In the example, the guy’s intent changes. At one point he’s thinking larcenous thoughts…but a moment later, he isn’t.
In California law, any object can be a “weapon” if the wielder intends it to be. If you have a baseball bat in your car, you have to be careful to think, “This is for a pick-up game of ball,” and not “This is for self-protection.”
But that means that the baseball bat in my car magically turns into a weapon, and then ceases being one again, on and off, as many as twenty times an hour!
Hate crimes, too, are often defined on the basis of intent. But, again, what if my intent changes back and forth? I’m beating this guy up because he was rude to me. (Not a hate crime.) He’s also a damned Jew. (Hate crime.) No, it’s just because he was rude. (Not…)
At some point, pragmatic concerns have to overrule abstract laws. Otherwise, you get into Asimov’s laws of robotics, and madness. If an intent is not clear, then I would argue it is not legally an intent. Someone just thinking about shoplifting has not established a clear intent.
If a mind-reader is required, then it isn’t “clear.”