[QUOTE=Frylock]
I just heard about this in passing today, and I’m posting just to ask for more information, but I figure it’s likely to turn GD if many people post comments to the thread at all, that’s why I’ve posted here instead of in GQ.
Anyway, my question is, do I understand correctly that a judge has determined that laws enforcing immigration policies can only be made at the federal level, and not at the state or local level?
If I do understand that correctly, my follow up question is, what’s the basis for this? If a law is permissible at federal level, why would it not be permissible at lower levels?
I’d provide a link except what I’ve just typed above is everything I have heard about this story, so I’m having a hard time finding links.
-FrL-
[/QUOTE]
The decision last week was in regards to two ordinances in Hazleton, PA fining landlords and employers of illegal immigrants. You can read about it on the ACLU’s site at: http://www.aclu.org/immigrants/discrim/31057prs20070726.html
The ruling is also available: http://www.aclu.org/pdfs/immigrants/hazleton_decision.pdf
Since the ACLU was a plaintiff in the case and also because they hate America I admit it’s not the best source for unbiased information, but I don`t have any other links. The ruling I’m sure is reproduced verbatim.
The ruling focuses on federal pre-emption starting on page 91. But the short answer is that the judge did not per se rule that state and local laws could not address immigration issues. The federal Immigration Reform and Control Act of 1986 expressly pre-empts state and local laws on immigration control. So the judge didn’t decide it, congress did. In 1986, if not earlier.
All the judge ruled was that the supremacy clause in the U.S. constitution requires that federal laws be supreme to state and local laws.
Congress could have chosen not to pre-empt state laws - States are permitted to have their own minimum wage laws as long as the minimum is higher than the federal minimum. They just didn`t do that in regards to immigration laws.