In the staff report about sociopaths/serial killers, Gfactor quotes a definition from the U.S. legal code (underlining added by me)
Does anyone have a reason for saying “not less than one” instead of “at least one”? I admit the possibility that it’s just someone trying to sound more legal-like by being more obfuscatory, but wondered if there’s some not-obvious reason for using the more awkward construction.
You are referring to an urban legend, an old wives’ tale, so to speak; an alleged rule of grammar that has no actual basis in fact. Rather than hijack the thread, I shall simply link to a previous discussion of this contrived shibboleth.