I saw this in a movie. A couple were going through a bitter divorce and were arguing about how to split up property that they owned jointly.
The husband realized his wife had more sentimental attachment to the property than he did so he vindictively sold all of the contested property. Once the property had been converted into cash, the total was split in two and each got half. But the husband “won” because he got half the cash value which was all he wanted while his wife also got half the cash value but got none of the sentimental value she had felt for the property.
Watching the movie, I had my suspicions that the husband wouldn’t have been able to get away with this. The divorce proceedings had already been started and the claims had been made over the ownership of the property. In such a situation would one person be able to sell the property? It seems much more likely that the property could only be sold with the permission of both people contesting ownership.