First off let me state that this might belong in GQ rather than here in GD but is has a GD feel to it so here it is. Apologies if it turns out to be the wrong place.
I was watching an episode of The Practice and it brought to mind the following question. I realize that getting any semblance of legal reality from a TV show is dicey at best but in this case I don’t think it is an issue (as you’ll see) as it merely prompted the question to form. I will, however, use the show’s premise to illustrate what I’m talking about…just take it as illustration/hypothetical.
In the show a man was being prosecuted for murdering his wife. His wife was terminally ill from cancer, on her deathbed at home and in extreme agony. It was established that the home care nurse was giving her a mix of morphine and valium for pain management that was also to have the side effect of hastening her death…probably a day or two for that to occur (the nurse was not on trial). The husband could take no more of watching his wife suffer and her pleas to be put out of her misery so he asked the nurse to leave, got his gun and shot his wife in the head killing her instantly.
The upshot of the trial was a man who in every technical sense committed murder. The suspense of the show was in determining if the jury could see its way to convict a man of murder (the DA flatly refused a lesser sentence of manslaughter although strongly pressured to do so) while strongly sympathizing with his reasons and not viewing him in any way as a menace to society.
This thread is not meant to debate euthanasia but rather the notion of jury nullification (I think I have that term right). Basically the defense was hoping that although the law seemed crystal clear in this case (the man was guilty of murder as defined in the statute) that the jury would, in effect, overrride the law and find him innocent due to extenuating circumstances. The show made a point of noting that the minimum sentencing requirements of murder (in that state at least) left little to no room for latitude to be given at sentencing if he was found guilty.
From a legal theory standpoint is jury nullification considered a correct and proper role of the jury or is it considered a jury run amok? Put another way, are juries supposed to be mechanical in their duties in strictly finding guilt or innocence based on the applicable law or are they supposed be a representation of their community and use those standards as well when making their decision?
I know jury nullification is rare but I believe it has happened. I could be wrong but I think some states allow a judge to override the verdict if he/she feels the jury did not apply the law appropriately (judgement notwithstanding the verdict?).
I find myself flip-flopping on this one. On the one hand I like to think of a jury being able to bend the law as it is near impossible for the law to be written to cover every conceivable angle. A jury can look at a particular case and say, in effect, that they don’t believe the law was meant to punish someone in a very particular circumstance. On the other hand the ability of juries to be swayed by emotion and not apply the law when it should be is very real as well.
Thoughts?
[sub]SPOILER – The man in the show was found guilty by the jury of Murder-2. The jury had asked the judge if they could lower to Manslaughter but the judge refused. It was an all or nothing deal.[/sub]