I have seen this on either tv or a movie kinda recently (cant remember where) the scenario is this
person A is in a state where both parties must be informed if the conversation is going to be recorded, and they want to record person B without their knowledge so…
while talking with person B they initiate a call with some one from a state where only one person (or none) need to be aware of the conversation being recorded and the person from out of state records the conversation from there.
is this seriously legal? I can understand the answer being yes given that the law tends to lag way the hell behind technology but it does seem kinda sketchy.
Then person C has broken the law in the state where persons A and B are located. You do not have to be physically located in a state in order to break that state’s laws. (However, there may be practical problems in finding, arresting and extraditing the person.)
no, I mean A makes the call and leaves the phone where it will pick up the conversation while C then records from out of state.
I kinda wondered if that would be the case. the weird part for me (that I left out of the op, oops) was that this recording was then legal for person A to use against B…that was probably kinda important to the whole thing
Additionally, courts in the state where A and B are might not look very favorably on using the illegally recorded conversation as evidence. So A may not end up having anything worthwhile from the exercise.
Let’s break this down into its pieces: What if A is in a state that requires both parties to be informed, but C is in a state where notification isn’t needed, and A calls C directly (or vice-versa), with no third parties?
Alternately, what if the call is made over the Internet, and routed through another state?
I don’t follow this line of reasoning. Do you have a cite? The recording is not taking place in the state where the practice is prohibited, so there is no way the person could be considered to have broken the state law. I would think that the only applicable laws in such a case would be federal.
Duckster, you missed an important part of your first cite
The situation described in the OP did not sound like a telco was involved.
Also, although the second cite is clear and appropriate, it doesn’t address the issue of interstate calls when the laws vary in the two jurisdictions.
That’s a good point. I’m in NJ and I believe we follow the federal standard or requiring only the consent of one party. Florida can enforce their laws regarding my actions unless they can somehow claim jurisdiction over me.
Any transaction or communication that crosses state boundaries would seem to be subject to federal law although in the case of telecommunications, I don’t know how that works.
My thoughts (“common sense,” I don’t know the legalities): I don’t believe the person recording the call from a state where it’s legal to do so would be prosectuted by the state where it’s not legal to do so. However, I would not be surprised if the latter state (not legal here) disallowed it as evidence in a court case.
In California, at least, see Kearney v. Salomon Smith Barney Inc. Short summary, Salomon Smith Barney, Inc. was in Georgia, a state where both parties don’t have to be informed of recording a conversation, and they recorded conversations with California customers. The California Supreme Court ruled that California could use their standard against Salomon Smith Barney.
That’s an interesting case. Note that it was a civil suit. The article mentions, “The California Supreme Court’s decision in Kearney does not find that SSB’s conduct was unlawful, but it does find that California law will decide that question if the case proceeds to trial.”
I’m not sure what is the basis for the suit proceeding to trial if it was not found that the conduct was unlawful. There are some subtleties to law that I will never understand.