I’m pretty sure this has been discussed at least a few times before, but if memory serves, the discussion always turns into the ethics of the following scenario. I’d do a search, but…
Anyway, the following didn’t happen to me, so I’m not seeking legal advice. YANML, IANYC, and such.
It’s my understanding that if a person gives me something, let’s say a DVD, that it’s mine. If it were to go to court and I could adequately prove that this person gave me the DVD, I’d likely win the case and the DVD would be deemed mine.
Now, what if my employer were to screw up payroll one week. A $10,000 direct deposit shows up in my account overnight, instead of the usual shirt buttons and dust. Naturally, corporate realizes this, and calls me up to ask for the money back. If I say “sorry, you gave it to me fair and square,” I presume that their lawyers will be serving me in short order. At trial, would the argument that they gave it to me, so it’s mine be a good one? Proving that they gave it to me (and I didn’t steal it) would be easy enough.
Does it then become an intent issue? If the employer can prove (by showing my timecard, pay rate, technical issue resulting in overpayment) that they didn’t mean to deposit money into my account, what are the legal grounds for them to then reclaim what they gave to me? Going back to the first scenario, would it be the same if my friend could somehow prove that he didn’t intend to give me the DVD, but did anyway?
Would I be correct in assuming that I probably couldn’t be charged with theft, because I didn’t take any action to steal the money?
Anyway, let’s not delve into the question of -should- I give it back immediately; feel free to start a GD on that if you wish. This thread could wind up in GD, I suppose, but I’m more curious about the legal process involved – has there been anything like this happen before, and what happened?