A call out to our linguistically experienced and educated colleagues here.
I have a casual interest in language and phonology and so I spend some time thinking about niche topics.
In dabbling with learning Irish and listening to some other languages (e.g., Breton), such as native languages of North America, I often get the feeling that I’m listening to someone with English based accents.
For example, I’ve spent a long time trying to understand Irish consonant pairs. For those who don’t know, in the Irish language, the consonants (p, ph, b, bh, t, th, d, dh, c, ch, g, gh, f, fh, s, sh, m, mh, , n, nn, nc, r, l, and ll) come in pairs.
Each of those consonants has two forms: velarized (a.k.a. “broad,” “W-colored,” leathan) and palatalized (a.k.a. “slender,” “Y-colored,” caol).
Almost every video or audio clip I find teaches these changes with equivalents to English phonemes.
For example, the “broad S” is taught as being like the English S sound /s/ and the “slender S” is taught as being the English SH sound /ʃ/.
But my thought is that this is simplification for the purposes of giving native English speakers a quick and dirty way of starting off learning.
My guess is that “broad S” should be more like /sˠ/ and “slender S” should be more like /sʲ/. It’s harder for me to learn, of course, but I consider it worth it to make the effort.
What I wonder is whether this process has actually changed the phonemics of actual speakers of Irish, as this form of teaching Irish to English speakers has kind of standardized an English accent in Irish.
Am I just being silly? Is this really a thing? Am I barking up the wrong tree trying to pronounce and hear “true” velarized and palatalized consonants instead of just using a rough English equivalent?
So, just to re-state the question in a more specific way: Have socially dominant languages (like English) pushed changes in the phonology of “dominated” languages (like Irish), standardizing a kind of “foreign accent” in the latter language?