I’ve been asking my engineer father and the engineer math teacher across the hall about this, but I still don’t truly see why I’m wrong. I admit I’m essentially arguing against the conservation of momentum, but I don’t see how I’m mistaken. This is my first year teaching Physics, and I haven’t encountered all the weird questions from kids like I have for chemistry.
A 1.5 kg rock traveling 4.0 km/hr hits a 3.5 kg ball of clay.
A. What is the new velocity of the combined system (they stuck together)?
B. What is the lost energy from this action?
A. The book wants to use conservation of momentum to figure a new velocity. Easily done: 1.5 km/hr.
B. This v is then used in the KE formula to find the new KE for the system: 4.5 J. The old KE of the rock was 12 J. Subtracting these leaves a gap of 7.5 J that was lost.
My “argument” is that this is unknowable. The rock must have deformed the clay, creating work and lost heat/energy to an unknown amount. This could have only come from the KE of the system, right?? If it did, then the only value on the right side of the KE equation that could have decreased is the v, to an unknown extent. This means that I don’t know what the v really is.
I realize that this means I’m arguing that momentum is not conserved even if the two colliding objects are moving in a frictionless environment, but the more I think about it the more I convince myself. I had assumed that the textbooks were just cheating and assuming absolutely perfect conditions, where there is no friction, or energy lost, but then this problem goes and admits that energy is lost, but figures out the amount lost from a seemingly perfect collision during which no energy is lost
I’ll not be surprised to be shown that this has a sizable hole in its reasoning, but I can’t find it, and the people I’m asking are not really addressing my point directly. Can some of the physics/teachers on the Dope help?