This has always been one of the most intriguing philosophical questions to me: the question of identity and change, and the viability of the semantics used to descibe them.
The classic example comes from the Bible, but PLEASE do not take this thread, or any debate around it, to have any claim on or interest in, Biblical exegesis. The example is used here because it’s colorful, not because it’s attempting to say anything about the Bible, or even accurately reflect it. It’s a hypothetical meant to entice thought about fundamental questions of object identity.
The story is this: Lot’s wife is punished for looking back at the destruction of her hometown: she is (presumably by god, who warned them against looking back) turned “into” a pillar of salt.
But does it make sense to speak of turning a woman INTO a pillar of salt? At one moment, we have the woman, a being defined by certain characteristics. The next moment (or perhaps less quickly) we have a pillar or salt: a being with an entirely different set of characteristics (though perhaps “vaguely woman shaped” is one of them).
The problem is this: how can we meaningfully speak of one thing turning “into” another, when the each thing derives its paricular identity from its set of characteristics, and the objects on either side of the “into” have very different characteristics? If they have very different identities, then it is hard to concieve of it making sense to say that one thing “turns into” “transforms into” the other. WHAT is undergoing the “turning into” if that process involves changing the very characteristics that give her her identity in the first place? Can it intelligibly be said that “Lot’s wife” is undergoing the “turning into” event, or is it actually her components (perhaps her atoms) that are being re-arranged to compose something else? Can “Lot’s wife” be said to exist “as” a pillar salt? Perhaps this example is poor due to Lot’s wife being a person, with whom we have non-physical associations: if so then simply consider a fire hydrant “turning into” a pillar of salt. Does THAT make sense?
What seems at least concievable is that Lot’s wife could have been replaced, whether instantaneously or successively, with a pillar of salt. Is that all that “turning into” really implies (it certainly SEEMS to imply more than that, but what?)
Even if we go with the “components that previously made up Lot’s wife are re-arranged to compose something else” answer, is there any way to distinguish this from the “replacement” theory, especially if the transformation is instantaneous?
It makes my head spin…