There is no absolute morality, if for no other reason than because there are many things that are morally good that conflict with one another. It is a “good thing” for people to be free, just as it is a “good thing” for people to be safe, but you can’t have complete freedom and complete safety. There’s no way to prove that the line must be drawn in the sand in a certain way. You can, however, provide a justification as to where you think the line ought to be drawn, and the validity of your justification determines the validity of your moral opinion.
Murder is objectively wrong, because it is defined as “unlawful/unjustified killing, especially with malice aforethought.” Look in any dictionary, and you’ll find a definition similar or identical to this one. It is impossible to justify murder–by the very nature of the word, murder is always unjustified.
Murder is not universally wrong, because there is no concept of “murder” that exists in a vacuum. Without communicative activity, you can’t have the implicity reciprocation that creates the distinction between “justified” and “unjustified” killing.
Why? Do you honestly believe that all justifications are equally valid? If not, then what’s the problem?
If there exists two moral assessments (“It’s okay for me to randomly kill people, but it’s not okay for others to randomly kill” and “Random killing is wrong for all people,” for example), then the first assessment is inconsistent (unless the person is somehow able to offer an acceptable justification as to why they have the priviledge to kill while others do not) and irrational, and the second is consistent and rational. An irrational justification is not equivalent to a rational justification–therefore it is false that all moral assessments are subjective.
Two problems with this counterexample:
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Person B needs only to point out the many examples of women who have suffered long-lasting psychological trauma as a result of rape. Person A will not be able to point out sufficient (if any) examples of women who were better off as a result of rape. These justifications are not equivalent.
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It is not sufficient to point out one example in which two moral assessments differ but are both equally valid–I have already stated that such situations exist. You must show that all moral assessments are incapable of being objectively compared to one another.
You’re misapplying the term “morality.” According to my dictionary, the very first definition of the term is “The quality of being in accord with standards of right or good conduct” (emphasis is my own). If nothing else, one’s morals can be objectively compared to the society’s moral standards, which would clearly place person A in the wrong.
Also, you’ve already admitted that assessments as nebulous as who is the “greatest basketball player” are subject to objective standards. Why is it so difficult to believe that assessments that have been in existence for far longer, such as declaring an action to be “righteous” or “wicked,” would also be subject to objective standards?
I fail to see how somebody can want to be raped, and still have it be considered rape. Again, checking the dictionary, the very first entry is “The crime of forcing another person to submit to sex acts, especially sexual intercourse.” If person C wants to have intercourse, then where does the “force” part of the definition come into play?
Not everybody has the same assessment as to who is the greatest basketball player. That still doesn’t mean that I’d be correct in saying that my beer can is the greatest basketball player of all time.
Fifty different people measuring an object with a meter stick might come up with fifty different measurements, but that doesn’t mean that the term “meter” is subjective, nor does it mean that the object’s dimensions are subjective.