I see another thread deals with how an American citizen comes to be held as a prisoner of the military even though he won’t be tried by the military. One can’t help but wonder at the current quality of the admissible evidence against him if the Criminal Code can’t be used. And quite where Habeas Corpus and due process are in all this, I’m afraid, escapes me.
Anyway, somehow the matter doesn’t seem to quite hit the right notes in other areas. For example:
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If the guy was arrested on the 8th May, why wait now to tell the US public ? Well, in the absence of other arrests, I guess it’s probably political. But, if that’s correct, is it okay to tell the public when it suits the Administration – isn’t there some kind of moral obligation to not make such obvious political gain out of the arrest ? (“Look at the great way our Intelligence Agencies are now co-operating”) If it’s no big deal, when did it become no big deal ?
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As he’s a US citizen - and was arrested on his return to the airport of his home town – why wouldn’t the Authorities let him stay free and able to make contact with other conspirators. He sure as hell wasn’t going to commit this alleged crime alone, in fact it sounds like a seriously sophisticated operation in the very early stages of planning…wasn’t the chance to nab any number of other ‘sleepers’ lost ? If so; Why – surely not for the short-term political gain of having made an arrest ?
All in all, it seems a funny old business to me. Any thoughts ?