And this isn’t a normal “I want to reduce payments / take advantage of lower interest” refinance. I just got this mortgage at the end of June.
I bought a house in June, and got a single 30 year, fixed-rate mortgage at 6.125%. The mortgage company I got the loan through seems to have a business model of handling the loan creation, then selling the loans to other banks.
However, it appears that they are in a situation where they can’t (now or maybe down the line) make that sale. It seems that the loan approval went through on their end when it really shouldn’t have based on their internal guidelines. My house is a “manufactured home”, and those have a bit of a stigma associated with them. Their guidelines state that the “Loan to Value” (the amount of the loan divided by the value of the house) needs to be 90% or lower for manufactured homes.
I made only a 5% down payment, so the LtV is 95% (well, 94.9x% since I have made a single monthly payment).
Obviously, someone on their end made a mistake. So they have come to me with a proposal. They will refinance my loan (at no cost to me) to a 20 year, fixed-rate mortgage at 5.75%.
This has a few points going for it. First: lower interest rate, almost always a good thing. Second: the monthly payment will increase, but it’ll still be within my budget. I had actually been planning on overpaying in a few months (once my financial situation steadies after all the “new house” stuff is taken care of), but there’s obviously a difference betweening choosing to pay off the loan sooner, and being required to pay it off sooner. Third, I’ll hit 20% equity sooner, allowing me to dump that mortgage insurance payment almost 4 years earlier (not taking overpayments into account) than with the original 30 year loan. Fourth, they are covering all the refinance fees that can’t be waived (although I will be combing over the numbers to make sure they don’t sneak it into the principle)
There are a few things I’m confused about, though, and I’m looking for some pointers. Note that I will be consulting with a professional as well.
First off, as far as I could tell, this still puts the LtV at the same point. However, after running some numbers through an amortization calculator, they may be banking on hitting that 90% LtV point sooner (23 months with the 20 year vs. 48 months with the 30). If they hang onto loans for the first couple years anyway before selling, that kind of makes sense to me.
Second, the refinancing contract (specifically the “good faith estimate”) has the loan amount of 190k, the original loan. Is this standard with refinances, or should the payment that I made reduce that? Is a refinanced mortgage done for the amount of the original loan, then the principal payments that were made get’s “rolled in”? Granted, at this point it’s only a single payment so it’s not a lot (about $180), but I don’t want that money to just disappear. It may just be because I’m not looking at the ‘final’ paperwork, so it was rounded out, or they pulled the numbers prior to my payment going through.
Finally, what can they do if I decide to go “Nope, I like what I’ve got, and have a signed contract from you binding you to it”? I’m assuming that the primary goal of this refinance is to benefit them, with some concessions made to make it worth my while.
All disclaimers apply (you’re not a bank officer / mortgage broker / contract lawyer, etc), I’m just looking to get a better feel for the situation before diving into everything with the bank and my loan officer.