Consider this scenario:
A robber breaks into what he believes to be an unoccupied house. He is interrupted by the homeowner while rifling through the silver in the kitchen. The homeowner, incensed at the intrusion, grabs a knife from the block and charges at the intruder. The robber, finding quite a bit more than he bargained for, beats a hasty retreat. The homeowner pursues him put onto the front lawn, where he catches the thief and fatally stabs him.
So does the homeowner have a case for self defense, even though the robber was in active retreat?!
If the struggle had resulted in the homeowners death, would the robber have a case for self defense. After all, he was trying to get away.
Assume all forensic evidence supports the facts as given ( it can be proven via video surveillance or whatever that the robber was attempting to flee and that it was the homeowner that engaged).
I also realize the answer may vary by jurisdiction, so qualify your answer if need be.