No "Right" Without a Corresponding Legal Remedy

Several past discussions here have included posters claiming a “right” to do something or other… smoke pot, commit suicide, marry a person of the same sex as they are, display a particular bumper sticker on their car parked on their employer’s property, and so forth.

Claims like this irritate me, because it is unclear what the source of the right is, or the authority for the proposition that there is such a right. Often, I suspect the “right” in question arises simply from the claimant’s deeply held desire to do the act in question; if you really really want to do something, apparently you have a right to it.

Because we cannot seem to agree on what rights God granted us - indeed, we cannot agree that there is a God, much less what specifics He may have had in mind for his creatures - I believe it is less than fruitful to discuss God-given rights, natural rights, or I-really-really-want-to rights.

If you have a corresponding remedy, then you have a right. If you do not, then you don’t. In the latter case, you should shut up about how you HAVE rights, and instead talk about how you should work for legislation to SECURE whatever-it-is as a new right.

  • Rick

I do have pity for poor Jacob Marbury – he should have gotten his commission! :slight_smile:

Good point, Rick. I found my analysis of “rights” in a number of points – the droits de l’homme “natural rights” theory that seems to have underlain the Federalists and the writing of the Constitution and the Bill of Rights, and the idea of “equal justice under law” that is the motto and attempted goal of the U.S. court system as a whole.

Not all rights are enumerated. Those spelled out by the Constitution are undoubtedly protected by it. But there is this Borkian blot of unspecified rights that certainly exists but is exceedingly difficult of definition.

All we can do is to identify them on a case-by-case basis, which is what the court system is good at – applying legal principles to specific cases.

That such rights exist is fairly easy to demonstrate: you and I undoubtedly have the right to marry the woman of our choice, presuming the feeling is mutual and that no legal impediments exist. (Delimiting rights does not abrogate them – it simply places a working definition for what the abstract term means.) We have the right to move whither we choose, presuming we have the means to do so and have a dwelling place at the end of the road. There are a half dozen other unenumerated rights that have been identified as such in court cases. I presume that bodily autonomy might be included in that list – we have the right to deal with our own bodies as we choose, subject to protections against acts contemplated in insanity, etc. – I think it would be quite valid to throw out a law that requires one to submit to the removal of a limb or organ because the state in its wisdom requires it for a transplant to another deemed more deserving of it. And I could make a good solid Fourth Amendment case on that – albeit it’s looking at a “penumbra” situation.

Now, if any one person has a given right, then, ceteris paribus, each other person has the same right – even if the mode in which he chooses to exercise it is not one that meets with majority approbation. And therein lies the crux of our dispute.

In other threads, you and Shodan, for whatever reasons, have suggested (probably through loose use of language) that governments create rights – and the jurisprudence of this country from Day 1 has been dead set against that. The most governments can do is guarantee or abrogate rights.

And the remedy you speak of in the OP lies in bringing suit to enforce one’s rights under the rather broad language of the Constitution. There are modes and statutes specifically tailored to do precisely that. Granted that people may claim rights that seem to be a “stretch” even for a fairly flexible reading of those passages – they have the unquestioned right to make such a claim, and to have the courts decide if it is a valid one or not.

And therein lies the problem that plagues these threads. It’s extraordinarily difficult to distinguish a claim of a right believed to be valid by the claimer, from the assertion that such a right is guaranteed by the Constitution but not yet borne out by decisions, from the claim that such a right has been found to be valid by the court system. Perhaps a little more precision in language might be appropriate – but I’d hope that we can agree on some basic principles about the construction of rights-based jurisprudence.

Your comments?

This makes no sense. Could you explain further? How do remedies drive rights? I thought remedies were created to allow for people whose rights were infringed to be made whole. If someone came up with a new way of infringing upon some old right then a remedy would be tailored for the situation. In other words, rights preceed remedies.

Could you expound on your view that there are no rights unless remedies have been crafted by the legislatures? I have a little card on my desk which notes that in Texas a “mother is entitled to breastfeed her baby in any location in which the mother is authorized to be, under the provisions of Chapter 165, Texas Health and Safety Code.” Nothing in Texas Health & Safety Code Chapter 165(PDF) establishes a remedy for anyone infringing on this right of the nursing mother. No mention of harassing breastfeeding mothers being a misdemeanor, or leading to civil fines or penalties. There is no enumerated remedy I can find, does this mean Chapter 165 does not confer a right?

Enjoy,
Steven

Do you mean that there are lots of rights floating around out there and that the only ones that we have any reason to formulate into Rights are the ones that are countervened in some way?

If this is your intent, then I guess I don’t agree with you.
If this isn’t your intent, then you’re going to have to restate it since I agree with Steven. It don’t make no sense.

–==Mike==–

In one of the Federalist Papers, I forget which one, Publius argued against adding a Bill of Rights to the Constitution, on the grounds that a complete enumeration of our ethical rights would be impossible, and a constitutional enumeration of our legal rights would imply the state has legitimate authority to abrogate any rights not so enumerated. I presume the Ninth and Tenth Amendments were intended as ways to get around this problem – but neither one has ever been the basis for any important decision of constitutional law.

Was Publius right, I wonder?

From the Wikipedia (http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Rights):

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Human_rights:

I guess I understand the distinction, but I don’t see how it affects the issues.

Whether we speak of “creating a new right” or recognizing one that has existed since the dawn of time does not affect who is responsible for doing it.

Maybe there is a unenumerated right to X. Or maybe, there is no right to X, but it can be created with the appropriate measures. In either case, it needs to be decided up front who can decide that the right to X exists or has been created.

What you and I disagree on is who can make that decision - whether the courts, or the legislatures or the people, and how, whether by statute, referendum, or Constitutional amendment only, or also by Court decision.

I think the problem is disagreement that the only or most appropriate remedy is to bring suit before the Court. I would argue that this is only appropriate in attempting to remedy the denial of an already existing right, and not in trying to have the courts establish a new one (or recognize an unenumerated one).

I guess I would agree that citizens have the right to try to get the courts to establish/recognize rights. But I don’t think they ought to prevail when they do so. They should only prevail by getting a majority of other citizens, and/or their representatives, to agree that this is a right deserving of protection. You can have the Constitution amended to say “The right to X shall not be abridged”, or pass a law protecting my right to X. But you cannot (IMO) get the courts to discover or establish a previously unenumerated right.

So I see “the problem that plagues these threads” as two-fold;
[ul][li]We don’t agree on where the duty lies to recognize a previously unenumerated right. You say the courts can do it, I say they can’t (or shouldn’t).[/li][li]You think a right not previously recognized as a natural but unenumerated right can be established even if the majority does not see the need, and even if there is no clear reference to it in the Constitution, nor any indication that it was part of the original intent of the establishing Constitutional clause. You mentioned yourself the difficulty in seeing what our complete set of rights are in the amorphous Borkean blob of natural law. Who has the duty to resolve those difficulties? AFAICT, you say it ought to be primarily the justices of the Supreme Court. I say it ought to be a majority of voting citizens and/or their elected representatives.[/ul]Your pardon if I have mistated your position, but this is what you sound like to me. [/li]
Bricker - when you say “no right without a remedy”, are you talking solely about rights already recognized, for which there is some remedy under law? If you mean “you only have rights if the courts have found that you do and what they are”, then I understand you, but I don’t think it affects the debate.

Do you mean the distinction between “I have a right to marry my boyfriend” vs. “I should have the right to marry my boyfriend” vs. "“The courts should recognize my right to marry my boyfriend” vs. “The courts should create my right to marry my boyfriend”?

Regards,
Shodan

To borrow the phrase from Lib, “scribbles on paper”.

Wouldn’t be the first time the Legislature passed a law that was all rhetoric and no remedy. Nevertheless, that section reads to me like it provides an affirmative defense against criminal charges, presumably public nudity or indecency laws. In that sense, at least, the statute does provide a “remedy” for the right conferred. Note also that the statute only recognizes a right to breastfeed, not to be free from disapproving comments and such. Full-blown “harrassment,” however, is likely to qualify as a crime (perhaps assault, terroristic threat, or disorderly conduct, depending upon the specific acts and/or statements involved) whether or not it is motivated by anti-breastfeeding animus.

I’m not sure I’m clear on how this section provides a remedy against private parties infringing on the breastfeeding mother’s right. Wouldn’t be the first time I did not manage to properly interpret legalese however. It would cleary establish an affirmative defense against any misguided state/county attempts to bring charges against the nursing mother, but aside from the general prohibitions on people who operate places of public accommodation(which is a narrower scope of venues than “anywhere the mother is authorized to be”) only being able to restrict access on legal grounds, where is the remedy if the infringement is due to the act of a private individual?

This is really more for my own curiosity than the lynchpin of my arguement. My arguement, rights necessarially preceed construction of remedies and are not invalidated if no such remedy has yet been constructed, still stands, even if my particular example is deficient. The right to vote was extended to former slaves after the Civil War. This right was frequently infringed via Jim Crow laws of various varieties. No remedies existed for many years to make whole those victims of Jim Crow, this did not mean their right to vote did not exist during that time.

Enjoy,
Steven

It doesn’t. Of course, the First Amendment doesn’t provide a remedy against private parties infringing on your right to free speech, either. Generally speaking, at least in the U.S., “rights” are something we have against the government, not each other.

So what is the legal muscle behind decisions forcing private clubs and such to accept African-American members, or female members? The statute in question(Texas H&S Chpt 165) seems to create a protected class called “breastfeeding mothers”. Would these protections not extend, as have protections for minorities and genders, into the private sphere?

Enjoy,
Steven

The federal Civil Rights Act, which was enacted by Congress under authority of the 14th Amendment and the interstate commerce clause (and upheld by the Supreme Court under the commerce clause, without passing judgment on Congress’ authority to legislate private activity under the 14th Amendment).

The Texas Legislature could (at least potentially) have granted breastfeeding mothers the right to breastfeed without that right being infringed by private persons, but it would have to have said so. And, as Bricker points out in the OP, it would have to create a remedy for private infringement or the guaranteed “right” would be substantively meaningless.

Rather than type my fingers numb, I incorporate by reference my posts in the following thread:

Rights? What’s a Right?

It will come as little surprise to regular readers of this forum that I think the title of this thread precisely captures the reality of the situation (indeed, Bricker is practically quoting an old con law professor I had in law school). A right that cannot be exercised is no right at all. It cannot be said to exist in any meaningful way.

This is a cogent analysis, I think. Clarity of language would go a long way towards solving the initial bickering and zeroing in on the precise claim being made.

“I have a right to …” is simply too vague a statement, and each reader views such a statement through the tint of his own glasses.

I would suggest, however, that because the term “right” carries - at least to my ear - a confident and definitive aura, it’s simply not useful to characterize things like “the inherent rights of man” as rights in any discussion other than the most hopelessly theoretical. The advantage of this view is that while you and I may differ on “the inherent rights of man” - do they include food, shelter, and HBO, or just basic cable? - the existence of rights which may be enforced under the law is subject to far fewer ambiguities.

I’d limit that to whether it exists in any meaningful way legally. The rhetoric of “rights” is pretty important when it comes to shaping public opinion and policy.

Nope, it doesn’t construct a protected class, it merely establishes that Texas recognizes a “right to publicly breastfeed.” You and I and Sister Mary Immaculata have the same right – we may not have equipment or circumstances to exercise it, but it does exist as an abstract right.

Seems like this thread boils down to a request for posters to say “there should be a right to X” instead of “there is a right to X” when referring to rights not explicitly guaranteed by law.

Good luck…

We have a right to say it anyway we want! :slight_smile:

Just kidding, of course. It drives me crazy, too.

I see your point, in a pragmatic context. However, in the assertion of previously unrecognized supposed rights, the issue becomes important. If I understand Shodan correctly, for a court to rule in favor of such a claim is in his eyes “creating a right” – but in my eyes, it’s giving proper legal recognition to an existing right which had not yet been given such recognition, rectifying an error of the past. The ideal example for this is slavery – I doubt that many people here would hold that any person prior to 1865 had the natural right to the ownership of another human being, whether or not the law permitted it. The 13th Amendment corrected that situation by recognizing the right of all persons not to be owned by someone else. It did not create that right; it validated it, established it as a legal precept if you prefer.

Hence for, e.g., Homebrew to allege that there exists a right to marry another unmarried unrelated willing adult without reference to the body gender of the individuals involved, is not in his eyes (and mine) an attempt to “create a right to gay marriage” but to obtain the recognition of the law for an existing right that has been up until recently denied – on the principle that equal protection calls for any two people (subject to the appropriate disclaimers) to enter into a marriage contract. (And I am not frigging interested in arguments based on claims about the right to marry an 18-person commune, your sister, a five-year-old, your pet golden retriever, your car, or your toaster. They are red herrings to the issue at hand.)

Can you see the distinction? (I hope, Shodan, that this answers a question that has caused some bad blood between us lately.) If a right in fact does exist and has been denied someone, that is a quite different kettle of fish from the creation of a right where none was before.

John: I’d liken this view on rights to the reality of constitutional philosophies. You can scream and yell about strict constructionalism all you want, but if the judges on the bench aren’t strict constructionalists then you’re SOL. Just like someone who believes they have a “right” but those lovely legislatures, even if they have constructed such a “right” in the legal statutes, haven’t constructed a way for you to exercise it. Both are just SOL.

Enjoy,
Steven

If someone claims the existence of a “right” that is not recognized at law, how might another person refute that argument?

I would simplfy the issue: before the 13th Amendment came along, people had the right to own other people. Subsequent to it, they did not.

  • Rick