I know nothing about the legal process. One of the areas that I know nothing about has to do with constitutes appropriate grounds for an attorney to object to another’s question of a witness.
In this fascinating link about the Chicago 7 trial (thanks, kunilou), there’s a section which gives the verbatim transcripts for a number of the witnesses (e.g. Phil Ochs, Allen Ginsberg, Timothy Leary, Norman Mailer, etc., - I told you, it’s a fascinating link ).
When Mailer was on the stand, the following exchange took place (note: William Kunstler was a defence lawyer, and Richard Schultz was a prosecuting attorney):
Now, my questions:
- Why was the objection made?
- How did rephrasing it in the way Kunstler did make it acceptable and ‘beyond’ objection?
- At the end of the day, the same information was forthcoming. What, then, was the purpose of the objection (and why did the judge allow it)?
I suppose the objection may have been made because the question as phrased was narrow and compelled Mailer to answer ‘yes’. But surely that can’t be the case, can it? I mean, asking “what awards (the) book has won” also compels the same answer (and also implies, even before it’s been answered, that, indeed, the book did win awards). In truth, it makes no sense at all to me. So, I’ll ask again:
- Why was the objection made?
- How did rephrasing it in the way Kunstler did make it acceptable and ‘beyond’ objection?
- At the end of the day, the same information was forthcoming (i.e. the book won a Pulitzer). What, then, was the purpose of the objection (and why did the judge allow it)?
Thanks in advance!