On an assault weapon ban

Ok - do you have a basis for that construction of “common use”?

Below is my take on it, though I grant it is merely my opinion and in this post I venture into speculative territory.

The scope of the 2nd hasn’t been fully litigated so I think it could go either way. The way I look at the framework is that there are two paths by which a weapon can fall under the umbrella of the 2nd amendment.

Path 1: weapons that would be typical for a person in the military
This is consistent with Miller but this view has not been tested. As the prefatory clause announces a purpose of the operative clause, utilization in a military function seems to square with this understanding in Miller, and is not precluded by Heller.
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Path 2:** Weapons that are in common use, and are not both dangerous and unusual
Here a reasonable guide would be the bearable arms available to police. Their need for self defense is without question and anything that enhances the self defense of these persons should be available to all persons.

Here is what Heller says about my path 1:

From this, if it can be shown that law abiding citizens possess for lawful purposes select fire weapons, then I would argue they fall under the auspices of both #1 and #2 above. There are still near 500K machine guns, most of which are not allowed to be transferred. And since the rate of crime with those are virtually non-existent, I’d say they are in common use for lawful purposes. This also doesn’t count any select fire weapons in police use.

Note above doesn’t say that M-16’s may be banned - it says that “if they may be banned…”.

The full scope of the 2nd has not yet been resolved.