Johny bought a condo for $100,000. His 30-year-mortgage, taxes, insurance and association fees cost him $900 per month.
He rents it to Timmy for $1000 per month. A rate determined by the free market, based on available property for rent, and one that both parties consider fair.
**Scenario 1: **After a year Johny sells the condo for $150,000. He spent $5,600 on taxes, insurance, and interest. Another $1,200 on association fees. And makes $12,000 from Timmy.
After the dust settles Johny walks away $55,200 richer. But Timmy is unhappy. He feels he risked a lot renting from Johny, so he wants part of the sale of the apartment. Based on your own personal definition of risk, how much should he get?
**Scenario 2: **After a year, the market goes to shit, and Jimmy is forced to sell the condo for $80,000. He spent $5,600 on taxes, insurance, and interest. Another $1,200 on association fees. And makes $12,000 from Timmy.
After the dust settles Johny walks away $14,800 poorer and he’s pissed. He wants Timmy to share in his loss. How much should he get?
Do the answers to 1 or 2 depend on how rich or poor Johny is in relation to Timmy? Do you find you naturally assume Johny is rich and Timmy is poor?