Do both chambers in a state legislature in the USA have to set district boundaries to provide for near equal populations per disctrict or only the lower house (ala Congress, were the Senate apportion seats at-large, two per state)? Thanks.
Both houses must be based on population at the state level. I can’t remember the SCOTUS case name on that.
Yes, the principal applies to both houses in a state legislature.
The Wikipedia page on Reynolds v. Sims gives some interesting examples of representational disparity between both upper and lower houses in several states.
Reynolds v. Sims, 377 U. S. 533 (1964)
ETA: What he/she said
Just a reminder that not all state legislatures have two chambers: Nebraska Legislature - Wikipedia