Working for a Swedish company, I’ve learned a tiny bit of their lingo. It happens that Swedish for “is” is “e” (pronounced “eh”), and Swedish for “not” is “inte” (pronounced “in tuh”). So Swedish for “is not” is “e inte”, which sounds a whole lot like “ain’t” if you say it quickly. So, does anyone know of any other credible theories for the origin of “ain’t”.
Ain’t is a contraction for “am not”, because amn’t is to difficult to say combining the m and n sounds together. So, “m” became “i” for easier pronunciation.
It’s not a Sweedish word…it’s an american contraction, like “isn’t”, “aren’t”, etc.
This site says it is a contracted form of “are/am/is not”.
Personally, I wouldn’t completely discount some foreign influence, though probably not Swedish. “Ai” is one of the conjugations of the French “Avoir” (as in “J’ai”). Maybe this helped the word gain popularity in America.
Why don’t we see similar corruptions of other contractions like “haven’t” (han’t?) or “wouldn’t” (woun’t?).
I’m still not totally satisfied.
They aren’t necessary. ‘Ain’t’ is. Example: Ain’t I an idiot?
Most English teachers would change it into Aren’t I an idiot?, but the world ‘aren’t’ is not for the first person conjugation, gramatically speaking. Think about it: I aren’t an idiot. makes as much sense.
The word itself comes from an earlier form of English. It was standard speech in the eighteenth century (as well as ‘you is’ when referring to only one speaker), but for some reason or another was shunned by the general community. In the twentieth century, it increased in popularity in the US, and even has the support of some of the big guys in linguistic advice, such as William Sapphire.
Oh, right, I forgot to say it’s a contracted form of ‘am not’, not ‘is not’ or ‘are not’. Gramatically speaking, it is only suitable for the first person singular (‘I’).
Swedish for “is” is är, which, depending on where in the country you are, can be pronounced in severeal ways. Apparently you have been taught Swedish pronounciation by an elderly Stockholmer (ie someone in my age or older) who would say “eh”, but for some reason the Stockholm dialect has changed drastically during the last 30 years or so, so a young person would use a much broader sound, almoust like “air”.
That’s not enitrely correct. Most dictionaries list ain’t as a contraction for are not, is not, and am not. Both the OED and Webster’s Unabridged list the are not contraction first. The American Heritage Dictionary lists the am not contraction first. The AHD has a nice outline of the word’s history, including this:
I think this provides the reason why ain’t didn’t become acceptable in the same way as other contractions: it did not have a “set sequence of words from which it can be contracted.”
Getting back to the OP, it doesn’t look like Swedish was involved anywhere with the origin of ain’t. The OED seems to indicate that its origin was the dialect of London.
From the American Heritage dictionary, however it doesn’t give the origin:
ain’t (³nt). Non-Standard. 1. Am not. 2. Used also as a contraction for are not, is not, has not, and have not.
————————————————————
USAGE NOTE: The use of ain’t as a contraction of am not, are not, is not, has not, and have not has a long history, but ain’t has come to be regarded as a mark of illiteracy and has by now acquired such a stigma that it is beyond any possibility of rehabilitation. However, it is used by educated speakers, for example, when they want to strike a jocular or demotic note, as in fixed expressions like Say it ain’t so or You ain’t just whistling Dixie. · The stigmatization of ain’t leaves us with no happy alternative for use in first-person questions. The widely used aren’t I?, though illogical, was found acceptable for use in speech by a majority of the Usage Panel in an earlier survey, but in writing there is no acceptable substitute for the admittedly stilted am I not?