I was chatting with the ex the other day, and catching up on people I no longer see. An inquiry about one couple revealed the surprising news that they’d divorced. While definitely an unusual pair of folks, they’d been together for 25 years and appeared to be quite devoted to each other. What happened?
It seems hubby’s doctor called Mrs. Hubby to his office and advised her that he had treated hubby for STDs 6 times in the previous year and had come upon the knowledge during the course of these treatments that hubby was (and, I would guess, probably still is) a regular participant in the goings on at adult book stores (obviously not in protected mode).
So they quickly divorced.
My question is, and consider that this woman was not a patient of this MD, did the doctor violate patient-physician confidentiality by revealing what he knew to her?
This is really an academic inquiry - I have no problem at all recognizing that slug-puppy hubby was exposing the Mrs. to risks unknown to her (fortunately the big one amongst STDs apparently didn’t come down the pike, or however you’d care to put it).